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Jlenok [28]
3 years ago
13

Question 5. Our results support the idea that if left to freely oscillate, a system will vibrate at a natural frequency that dep

ends on the system itself, not on the initial push or stimulus that we impart. Based on this reasoning, consider a beam made out of iron and an otherwise identical beam made out of aluminum. How should the natural frequency of vibration of these two beams compare

Physics
1 answer:
Gekata [30.6K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(b) In ideal condition we neglect mass of spring but in real springs mass of spring adds another factor to its time period.

since we are adding a factor of mass to the system, and frequency being inversely proportional to squared root of mass, we can come to a general conclusion that it effectively reduces the natural frequency .

Explanation:

kindly check the attachment for explanation.

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a moving billiard ball collides with an identical stationary billiard ball in an elastic collision. after the collision, the sec
MArishka [77]

A billiard ball collides with a stationary identical billiard ball to make it move. If the collision is perfectly elastic, the first ball comes to rest after collision.

<h3>Why does the first ball comes to rest after collision ?</h3>

Let m be the mass of the two identical balls.  

u1 = velocity before the collision of ball 1

u2 = 0 = velocity of second ball that is at rest

v1 and v2 are the velocities of the balls after the collision.

From the conservation of momentum,

∴ mu1 + mu2 = mv1 + mv2

∴ mu1 = mv1 + mv2

∴ u1 = v1 + v2

In an elastic collision, the kinetic energy of the system before and after collision remains same.

\frac{1}{2}  mu_1^2+0=\frac{1}{2}  mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2}  mv_2^2

∴  \frac{1}{2}  m(v_1+v_2 )^2=\frac{1}{2} mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2}mv_2^2

∴ \frac{1}{2} mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2} mv_2^2+mv_1 v_2=\frac{1}{2}  mv_1^2+\frac{1}{2} mv_2^2

∴ mv₁v₂ = 0

  1. It is impossible for the mass to be zero.
  2. Because the second ball moves, velocity v2 cannot be zero.
  3. As a result, the velocity of the first ball, v1, is zero, indicating that it comes to rest after collision.
<h3>What is collision ?</h3>

An elastic collision is a collision between two bodies in which the total kinetic energy of the two bodies remains constant. There is no net transfer of kinetic energy into other forms such as heat, noise, or potential energy in an ideal, fully elastic collision.

Can learn more about elastic collision from brainly.com/question/12644900

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
What sort of waves exhibit the doppler effect?
Alexus [3.1K]
The waves that occur when you drop and stone into the water when skipping rocks
7 0
3 years ago
A 54 kg man holding a 0.65 kg ball stands on a frozen pond next to a wall. He throws the ball at the wall with a speed of 12.1 m
Inessa [10]

Answer:

The velocity of the man is 0.144 m/s

Explanation:

This is a case of conservation of momentum.

The momentum of the moving ball before it was caught must equal the momentum of the man and the ball after he catches the ball.

Mass of ball = 0.65 kg

Mass of the man = 54 kg

Velocity of the ball = 12.1 m/s

Before collision, momentum of the ball = mass x velocity

= 0.65 x 12.1 = 7.865 kg-m/s

After collision the momentum of the man and ball system is

(0.65 + 54)Vf = 54.65Vf

Where Vf is their final common velocity.

Equating the initial and final momentum,

7.865 = 54.65Vf

Vf = 7.865/54.65 = 0.144 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
How can you describe the path of the projectile motion?
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Projectile motion is a form of motion where an object moves in a bilaterally symmetrical+ parabolic path.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Playing near a road construction site, a child falls over a barrier and down onto a dirt slope that is angled downward at 33° to
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

\mu_{k} \approx 0.719

Explanation:

The equations of equilibrium for the child are: (x' in the direction parallel to slope, y' in the direction perpendicular to slope)

\Sigma F_{x'} = m\cdot g \cdot \sin \theta - \mu_{k}\cdot N = m\cdot a\\\Sigma F_{y'} = N - m\cdot g\cdot \cos \theta = 0

After some algebraic manipulation, an expression for the coefficient of kinetic friction is obtained:

m\cdot g\cdot \sin \theta - \mu_{k}\cdot m \cdot g \cos \theta = m \cdot a

g \cdot (\sin \theta - \mu_{k}\cdot \cos \theta) = a

\mu_{k}\cdot \cos \theta = \sin \theta - \frac{a}{g}

\mu_{k} = \frac{1}{\cos \theta}\cdot (\sin \theta - \frac{a}{g} )

\mu_{k} = \frac{1}{\cos 33^{\textdegree}}\cdot \left(\sin 33^{\textdegree}-\frac{(-0.57\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}) }{9.807\,\frac{m}{s^{2}} } \right)

\mu_{k} \approx 0.719

5 0
3 years ago
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