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3 years ago

Which best explains why sound travels faster through a solid

2 answers:

8 0

Its because the molecules in the solid structures are very close to each other and rigidly packed, thus due to this quantum structure they have pretty awesome speed of sound in them

malfutka [58]3 years ago

3 0

The spacing of molecules enables sound to travel faster through a solid (it is packed more tightly)

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A car is initially driving at 30 m/s. It hits a large pothole, after which it is traveling in the same direction but at 25 m/s.

Bogdan [553]

Answer:

The time of Mars is 1.65 times larger on Mars than on Earth

Explanation:

The equation that describes the system is the final speed is equal to the speed minos the speed lost by the collision with the porhole

Vf = Vo - V pothole

B) let's transform the weight of free groin system and N international system

1 N = 0.2248 lb

2.8 lbs (1N / 0.2248lbs) = 12.5 N

c) Kinematic equations are the same in all inertial systems, Mars and Earth, so we can use the height equation, with zero initial velocity

Y = Vo t - ½ g t²

Y = - ½ g t²

t = √ 2Y / g

Mars

gm = 0.37g

gm = 0.37 9.8

gm = 3,626 m / s²

t = √( 2 1.9 / 3.626 )

t = 1.02 s

Earth

t = √( 2 1.9 / 9.8)

t = 0.62 s

To make the comparison of time we are the relationship between the two

tm / te = 1.02 / 0.62

tm / te = 1.65

The time of Mars is 1.65 times larger on Mars than on Earth

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Identify two ways in which friction is not useful in science

kiruha [24]

Answer:

Friction between brakes and the wheels of a car or bicycle helps the vehicles slow down.
If you do not lubricate your bike regularly with oil, the friction in the chain and axles increases.

8 0

3 years ago

2013 Indianapolis 500 champion Tony Kanaan holds his hand out of his IndyCar while driving through still air with standard atmos

Citrus2011 [14]

Answer:

(a). The pressure is 14.76 psi.

(b). The pressure is 15.59 psi.

(c). The pressure is 15.68 psi.

All answer are reasonable.

Explanation:

Given that,

Speed v₁= 60 mph

Speed v₂ = 225 mph

Speed v₃ = 235 mph

(a). We need to calculate the maximum pressure on his hand

Using equation of pressure

$P_{1}=P+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v^2+\rho gh$

there, no vertical movement

So, on neglect of height term

$P_{1}=P+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_{1}^2$

Where, P= atmospheric pressure

$\rho$ = air density

v = speed

Put the value in the equation

$P_{1}=14.7\times144+\dfrac{1}{2}\times(0.002376\times(60\times1.4667)^2)$

$P_{1}=2126.0\ lb/ft^2$

$P_{1}=\dfrac{2126.0}{144}$

$P_{1}= 14.76\ psi$

(b). Speed v₂ = 225 mph

We need to calculate the maximum pressure on his hand

Using equation of pressure

$P_{2}=P+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_{2}^2$

Put the value in the equation

$P_{2}=14.7\times144+\dfrac{1}{2}\times(0.002376\times(225\times1.4667)^2)$

$P_{2}=2246.17\ lb/ft^2$

$P_{2}=\dfrac{2246.17}{144}$

$P_{2}= 15.59\ psi$

(c). Speed v₃ = 235 mph

We need to calculate the maximum pressure on his hand

Using equation of pressure

$P_{3}=P+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_{3}^2$

Put the value in the equation

$P_{3}=14.7\times144+\dfrac{1}{2}\times(0.002376\times(235\times1.4667)^2)$

$P_{3}=2257.93\ lb/ft^2$

$P_{3}=\dfrac{2257.93}{144}$

$P_{3}= 15.68\ psi$

According to bernoulli's equation,

If the car increases the velocity the the pressure on the surface of the driver's hand increases.

The pressure from P₁ to P₃ are all near the value of one atmosphere.

So, the pressure difference of one atmosphere is not enough to break the driver's hand.

Hence, (a). The pressure is 14.76 psi.

(b). The pressure is 15.59 psi.

(c). The pressure is 15.68 psi.

All answer are reasonable.

5 0

3 years ago

What happens when a proton is placed directly in the path of the proton cannon?

blondinia [14]

Answer:coherent light

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Uploaded imageTwo long, parallel wires each carry the same current I in the same direction (see figure below). The total magneti

LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

Zero

Explanation:

Two long parallel wires each carry the same current I in the same direction. The magnetic field in wire 1 is given by :

$B_1=\dfrac{\mu_oI_1}{2\pi r}$

Magnetic force acting in wire 2 due to 1 is given by :

$F_{2}=I_2lB_1$

$F_2=\dfrac{\mu_oI_1I_2 l}{2\pi r}$

Similarly, force acting in wire 1 is given by :

$F_1=\dfrac{\mu_oI_1I_2 l}{2\pi r}$ According to third law of motion, the force acting in wire 1 will be in opposite direction to wire 2 as :

$F_2=-F_1$

So, the total magnetic field at the point P midway between the wires is in what direction will be zero as the the direction of forces are in opposite direction.

7 0

3 years ago