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aalyn [17]
3 years ago
11

Show that the Joule-Thompson Coefficient is zero for ideal gas.

Chemistry
1 answer:
melomori [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Joule-Thomson coefficient for an ideal gas:

\mu_{J.T} = 0

Explanation:

Joule-Thomson coefficient can be defined as change of temperature with respect to pressure at constant enthalpy.

Thus,

\mu_{J.T} = \left [\frac{\partial T}{\partial P} \right ]_H

Also,

H= H (T,P)

Differentiating\ it,

dH= \left [\frac{\partial H}{\partial T}\right ]_P dT + \left [\frac{\partial H}{\partial P}\right ]_T dT

Also, C_p is defined  as:

C_p = \left [\frac{\partial H}{\partial T}\right ]_P

So,

dH= C_p dT + \left [\frac{\partial H}{\partial P}\right ]_T dT

Acoording to defination, the ethalpy is constant which means dH = 0

So,

\left [\frac{\partial H}{\partial P}\right ]_T = -C_p\times \left [\frac{\partial T}{\partial P}\right ]_H

Also,

\mu_{J.T} = \left [\frac{\partial T}{\partial P}\right ]_H

So,

\left [\frac{\partial H}{\partial P}\right ]_T =-\mu_{J.T}\times C_p

For an ideal gas,

\left [\frac{\partial H}{\partial P}\right ]_T = 0

So,

0 =-\mu_{J.T}\times C_p

Thus, C_p ≠0. So,

\mu_{J.T} = 0

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