Using the scientific definition of work, does moving an object a greater amount of distance always require a greater amount of w
ork? Why or why not?
1 answer:
The answer is no. If you are dealing with a conservative force and the object begins and ends at the same potential then the work is zero, regardless of the distance travelled. This can be shown using the work-energy theorem which states that the work done by a force is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the object.
W=KEf−KEi
An example of this would be a mass moving on a frictionless curved track under the force of gravity.
The work done by the force of gravity in moving the objects in both case A and B is the same (=0, since the object begins and ends with zero velocity) but the object travels a much greater distance in case B, even though the force is constant in both cases.
W=KEf−KEi
An example of this would be a mass moving on a frictionless curved track under the force of gravity.
The work done by the force of gravity in moving the objects in both case A and B is the same (=0, since the object begins and ends with zero velocity) but the object travels a much greater distance in case B, even though the force is constant in both cases.
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Answer:
A)Object 1 has the greater magnitude of its momentum.
B)The objects 2 have the greater kinetic energy.
Explanation:
For object 1 :
v₁ = v ,m₁ = 2 m
For object 2 :
,m₂=m
We know that linear momentum given as
P = M V
M=Mass , V=Velocity
For object 1 :
P₁ =m₁ v₁
P₁ =2 m v
For object 2
We can say that object 1 have more momentum.
The kinetic energy
Therefore both the object 2 have higher kinetic energy.