Answer:
V=14.9 m/s
Explanation:
In order to solve this problem, we are going to use the formulas of parabolic motion.
The velocity X-component of the ball is given by:

The motion on the X axis is a constant velocity motion so:

The whole trajectory of the ball takes 1.48 seconds
We know that:

Knowing the X and Y components of the velocity, we can calculate its magnitude by:

Answer:
d
Explanation:
the heat can move through the metal and onto the clothing
Answer:
a)15 N
b)12.6 N
Explanation:
Given that
Weight of block (wt)= 21 N
μs = 0.80 and μk = 0.60
We know that
Maximum value of static friction given as
Frs = μs m g = μs .wt
by putting the values
Frs= 0.8 x 21 = 16.8 N
Value of kinetic friction
Frk= μk m g = μk .wt
By putting the values
Frk= 0.6 x 21 = 12.6 N
a)
When T = 15 N
Static friction Frs= 16.8 N
Here the value of static friction is more than tension T .It means that block will not move and the value of friction force will be equal to the tension force.
Friction force = 15 N
b)
When T= 35 N
Here value of tension force is more than maximum value of static friction that is why block will move .We know that when body is in motion then kinetic friction will act on the body.so the value of friction force in this case will be 12.6 N
Friction force = 12.6 N
What happens is the potential value of the conductor decreases due to the presence of second conductor
as the capacitance is given by C = q/v
the value of v deceases as v-v1
thus the new capacitance is = C' = q/v-v1 thus the lowering of v increases the capacitance
Answer:
Towards the west
Explanation:
Magnetic force is the interaction between a moving charged particle and a magnetic field.
Magnetic force is given as
F = q (V × B)
Where F is the magnetic force
q is the charge
V is the velocity
B is the magnetic field
V×B means the cross product of the velocity and the magnetic field
NOTE:
i×i=j×j×k×k=0
i×j=k. j×i=-k
j×k=i. k×j=-i
k×i=j. i×k=-j
So, if the electron is moving southward, then, it implies that the velocity of it motion is southward, so the electron is in the positive z-direction
Also, the electron is curved upward due to the magnetic field, this implies that the force field is directed up in the positive y direction.
Then,
V = V•k
F = F•j
Then, apply the theorem
F •j = q ( V•k × B•x)
Let x be the unknown
From vector k×i =j.
This shows that x = i
Then, the magnetic field point in the direction of positive x axis, which is towards the west
You can as well use the Fleming right hand rule
The thumb represent force
The index finger represent velocity
The middle finger represent field