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Answer : The time taken for the concentration will be, 7.98 seconds
Explanation :
First order reaction : A reaction is said to be of first order if the rate is depend on the concentration of the reactants, that means the rate depends linearly on one reactant concentration.
Expression for rate law for first order kinetics is given by :
![k=\frac{2.303}{t}\log\frac{[A]_o}{[A]}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=k%3D%5Cfrac%7B2.303%7D%7Bt%7D%5Clog%5Cfrac%7B%5BA%5D_o%7D%7B%5BA%5D%7D)
where,
k = rate constant = 
t = time taken for the process = ?
= initial concentration = 0.860 M
= concentration after time 't' = 0.260 M
Now put all the given values in above equation, we get:


Therefore, the time taken for the concentration will be, 7.98 seconds
Answer:
0.001 s
Explanation:
The force applied on an object is equal to the rate of change of momentum of the object:

where
F is the force applied
is the change in momentum
is the time interval
The change in momentum can be written as

where
m is the mass
v is the final velocity
u is the initial velocity
So the original equation can be written as

In this problem:
m = 5 kg is the mass of the fist
u = 9 m/s is the initial velocity
v = 0 is the final velocity
F = -45,000 N is the force applied (negative because its direction is opposite to the motion)
Therefore, we can re-arrange the equation to solve for the time:

Answer:
v1 = v2
Explanation:
Given:
- The missing figure is (attached).
- The Magnetic Field B1 > B2
Find:
How does the speed v1 of the electron in region 1 compare with the speed v2 in region 2?
Solution:
- From Lorentz Law we know that the Force that acts on the charge particle is the cross product of Magnetic Field Vector ( B1 or B2 ) and the velocity vector (v1 or v1).
- From the attached figure related to this problem we see that the electron velocity or direction of motion is always parallel to the magnetic field B1&B2.
- The law of cross product for parallel vector is 0. Hence, the Lorentz force acting on the electron is also zero.
- Zero Force means no work is done on the particle by the magnetic field, thus, the change in kinetic energy also zero for conservation of energy to hold.
- The initial and final kinetic energies of the electron is same. Hence, we can conclude that v1 = v2.
The answer should be B. Fault.