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Sauron [17]
3 years ago
10

What is true about surface waves?

Physics
2 answers:
fredd [130]3 years ago
6 0
B. is the correct answer
marshall27 [118]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: The correct answer is B.

Explanation:

In longitudinal wave, the vibrations of the particle of the medium is parallel to the direction of the motion of the wave.

In transverse wave, the vibrations of the particle of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of the motion of the wave.

In surface wave, the particles of the medium undergo circular motion. The surface wave is neither longitudinal nor transverse.

Therefore, surface waves are the disturbances which travel in the circular motion.

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Using a scale diagram, calculate the resultant force acting on a sailing boat when an easterly wind provides 2, point, 50, k, N,
EastWind [94]

Answer:

F = 3.6 kN, direction is 9.6º to the North - East

Explanation:

The force is a vector, so one method to find the solution is to work with the components of the vector as scalars and then construct the resulting vector.

Let's use trigonometry to find the component of the forces, let's use a reference frame where the x-axis coincides with the East and the y-axis coincides with the North.

Wind

X axis

          F₁ = 2.50 kN

Tide

         cos 30 = F₂ₓ / F₂

         sin 30 = F_{2y} / F₂

          F₂ₓ = F₂ cos 30

         F_{2y} = F₂ sin 30

         F₂ₓ = 1.20cos 30 = 1.039 kN

         F_{2y} = 1.20 sin 30 = 0.600 kN

the resultant force is

X axis

        Fₓ = F₁ₓ + F₂ₓ

        Fₓ = 2.50 +1.039

        Fₓ = 3,539 kN

        F_y = F_{2y}

        F_y = 0.600

to find the vector we use the Pythagorean theorem

         F = \sqrt{F_x^2 +F_y^2}

         F = \sqrt{ 3.539^2 + 0.600^2 }

         F = 3,589 kN

the address is

         tan θ = F_y / Fₓ

         θ = tan⁻¹ \frac{F_y}{F_x}

         θ = tan⁻¹  \frac{0.6}{3.539}0.6 / 3.539

         θ = 9.6º

the resultant force to two significant figures is

         F = 3.6 kN

the direction is 9.6º to the North - East

7 0
2 years ago
Two metra trains approach each other on separate but parallel tracks. one has a speed of 90 km/hr, the other 80 km/hr. initially
Gennadij [26K]

The trains take <u>57.4 s</u> to pass each other.

Two trains A and B move towards each other. Let A move along the positive x axis and B along the negative x axis.

therefore,

v_A=90 km/h\\ v_B=-80 km/h

The relative velocity of the train A with respect to B is given by,

v_A_B=v_A-v_B\\ =(90km/h)-(-80km/h)\\ =170km/h

If the train B is assumed to be at rest, the train A would appear to move towards it with a speed of 170 km/h.

The trains are a distance d = 2.71 km apart.

Since speed is the distance traveled per unit time, the time taken by the trains to cross each other is given by,

t= \frac{d}{v_A_B}

Substitute 2.71 km for d and 170 km/h for v_A_B

t= \frac{d}{v_A_B}\\ =\frac{2.71 km}{170 km/h} \\ =0.01594 h

Express the time in seconds.

t=(0.01594h)(3600s/h)=57.39s

Thus, the trains cross each other in <u>57.4 s</u>.

6 0
3 years ago
The Balmer series in hydrogen atom produces only infrared emission. O True O False
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

As we know that, the Balmer series gives the n values as,

n_{i}=2.

[tex]n_{f}=3,4,5,.....\infty.

Now the value of wavelength can be calculated as,

\frac{1}{\lambda}=R(\frac{1}{n_{i} }-\frac{1}{n_{f} } )z^{2}.

Here, R=109677 cm^{-1}.

And n_{f}=3.

Now,

\frac{1}{\lambda}=109677 cm^{-1}(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}).

Therefore,

\lambda=\frac{6}{109677} cm\\\lambda=547\times 10^{-9} m\\ \lambda=547 nm

Therefore, the wavelength of Balmer series lies in visible region which is 547 nm.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On a bet, you try to remove water from a glass by blowing across the top of a vertical straw immersed in the water. What is the
MArishka [77]

Answer:

       v₂ = 0.56 m / s

Explanation:

This exercise can be done using Bernoulli's equation

        P₁ + ½ ρ v₁² + ρ g y₁ = P₂ + ½ ρ v₂² + ρ g y₂

Where points 1 and 2 are on the surface of the glass and the top of the straw

The pressure at the two points is the same because they are open to the atmosphere, if we assume that the surface of the vessel is much sea that the area of ​​the straw the velocity of the surface of the vessel is almost zero v₁ = 0

The difference in height between the level of the glass and the straw is constant and equal to 1.6 cm = 1.6 10⁻² m

We substitute in the equation

         P_{atm} + ρ g y₁ = P_{atm} + ½ ρ v₂² + ρ g y₂

         ½ v₂² = g (y₂-y₁)

        v₂ = √ 2 g (y₂-y₁)

Let's calculate

        v₂ = √ (2 9.8 1.6 10⁻²)

       v₂ = 0.56 m / s

5 0
2 years ago
Eric drops a 2.20 kg water balloon that falls a distance of 45.08 m off the top of a
Marianna [84]

Answer:

972 J

Explanation:

At the bottom, all the gravitational potential energy was converted into kinetic energy. If you calculate the GPE, its value will be the same that the KE at the bottom. The GPE can be calculated this way:

GPE = mass×gravity×heigth

GPE = 2.2×9.8×45.08 ≈ 972

4 0
2 years ago
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