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Fudgin [204]
3 years ago
10

Why is the gravitational potential energy of an object 1 meter above the moon’s surface less than its potential energy 1 meter a

bove Earth’s surface?
A. The object’s mass is less on the moon.
B. The object’s weight is more on the moon.
C. The object’s acceleration due to gravity is less on the moon.
D. both a and c
Physics
1 answer:
dsp733 years ago
3 0

Potential energy relative to the surface is

         (mass) x (<span>acceleration due to gravity) x (height above the surface).

At 1.0 meter above the surface, that is

</span>          (mass) x (<span>acceleration due to gravity) x (1.0 meter) .

The object's mass doesn't change, so the only thing that has any effect
on its potential energy at 1 meter above the surface is the acceleration
of gravity or, in other words, the surface of <em><u>what</u></em> ?

</span>
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4 years ago
On a Saturday afternoon, you decide to pay a neighborhood kid to mow your lawn. The kid usesa manual push lawn mower with a mass
Mars2501 [29]

Answer with Explanation:

We are given that

A.Mass,m=12 kg

\theta=53^{\circ}

\mu_k=0.16

Speed,v=1.5m/s

Net force in x direction must be zero

F_{net}=0

Fsin\theta-f=0

Fsin\theta=f

Net force in y direction

N-mg-Fcos\theta=0

N=mg+Fcos\theta

f=\mu_kN=\mu_k(mg+Fcos\theta)

Fsin\theta=\mu_k(mg+Fcos\theta)

Fsin\theta=\mu_kmg+\mu_kFcos\theta

Fsin\theta-\mu_kFcos\theta=\mu_kmg

F(sin\theta-\mu_kcos\theta)=\mu_kmg

F=\frac{\mu_kmg}{sin\theta-\mu_kcos\theta}

Power,P=Fv

P=\frac{\mu_kmg}{sin\theta-\mu_kcos\theta}v

Where g=9.8m/s^2

B.Substitute the values

P=\frac{0.16\times 12\times 9.8}{sin53-0.16cos53}\times 1.5

P=40.17W

6 0
4 years ago
In a physics lab, Asha is given a 10.7 kg uniform rectangular plate with edge lengths 67.3 cm by 53.5 cm . Her lab instructor re
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

I=2.6363\ kg.m^2

Explanation:

Given:

dimension of uniform plate, (0.673\times 0.535)\ m^2

mass of plate, m=10.7\ kg

Now we find the moment of inertia about the center of mass of the rectangular plate is given as:

I_{cm}=\frac{1}{12} \times m(L^2+B^2)

where:

L= length of the plate

B= breadth of the plate

I_{cm}=\frac{1}{12} \times 10.7\times(0.673^2+0.535^2)

I_{cm}=0.6591\ kg.m^2

We know that the center of mass of the rectangular plane is at its geometric center which is parallel to the desired axis XX' .

Now we find the distance between the center of mass and the corner:

s=\frac{\sqrt{ (0.673^2+0.535^2)}}{2}

s=0.4299\ m

Now using parallel axis theorem:

I=I_{cm}+m.s^2

I=0.6591+10.7\times 0.4299^2

I=2.6363\ kg.m^2

6 0
3 years ago
Large power plants in the United States currently use what generators.
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3 years ago
A block of mass m = 150 kg rests against a spring with a spring constant of k = 880 N/m on an inclined plane which makes an angl
weeeeeb [17]

Answer:

b)  k Δx - W cos θ - μ mg cos θ = m a ,  c)  θ = 86.6º, d)  Δx = 1.18 m

Explanation:

a) In the attachment we can see a diagram of the forces in this problem and the coordinate axes for its decomposition.

F is the force applied by the spring, while it is compressed, this force disappears when the block leaves the spring

b) Let's apply Newton's second law for when the spring is compressed

let's use trigonometry to break down the weight

            sin θ = Wₓ / W

            cos θ = W_y / W

             Wₓ = W sin θ

             W_y = W cos θ

Y axis  

               N - W_y = 0

               N = W_y

               N = W cos θ

X axis

           F -Wₓ -fr = ma

the force applied by the spring is given by hooke's law

           F = k Δx

friction force has the expression

           fr = μ N

           fr = μ W cos θ

we substitute

            k Δx - W cos θ - μ mg cos θ = m a           ( 1)

c) If the plane has no friction, what is the angle so that Δx = 0.1m

             

We write the equation 1, with fr = 0 and since the system is still a = 0

            k Δx - W cos θ -0 = 0

            cos θ = \frac{k \Delta x}{ m g}

            cos θ = \frac{880 \ 0.1}{ 150 \ 9.8}

            cos θ = 0.0598

            θ = cos⁻¹ 0.0598

            θ = 86.6º

d) In this part they give the angle θ = 45º and there is no friction, they ask the compression

the acceleration is zero, we substitute in 1

            k Δx - W cos θ - 0 = 0

            Δx = \frac{mg \ cos \  \theta}{k}

            Δx = \frac{ 150 \ 9.8 \ cos45}{880}

            Δx = 1.18 m

7 0
3 years ago
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