Answer:it dissolves and evaporates
Explanation:
Answer:
The speed of light is the speed at which light travels. No, an object cannot move at the speed of light.
Explanation:
The speed of light is 186,000 miles per second. An object with mass cannot move at the speed of light since it would take an infinite amount of energy to achieve that velocity, since only massless particles can travel at the speed of light. Also, you would have to factor in air friction, meaning even if an object were to reach such high speeds, it would instantly disintegrate.
Explanation:
Kinetic energy is defined as the energy obtained by an object due to its motion. Whereas energy obtained by an object due to its position is known as potential energy.
(a) When a sled is resting at the top of a hill then it means the sled in not moving. Hence, then it has only potential energy. But when a sled sliding down the hill then it is moving from its initial position.
Hence, when a sled is sliding down the hill then it has higher kinetic energy.
(b) When water is above the dam then it only has potential energy but when the water falls over the dam then it has higher kinetic energy.
Answer:- The hydroxide ion concentration of the solution is
.
Solution:- The formula used to calculate pOH from hydroxide ion is:
![pOH=-log[OH^-]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=pOH%3D-log%5BOH%5E-%5D)
When pOH is given and we are asked to calculate hydroxide ion concentration then we multiply both sides by negative sign and take antilog and what we get on doing this is:
![[OH^-]=10^-^p^O^H](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5BOH%5E-%5D%3D10%5E-%5Ep%5EO%5EH)
pOH is given as 5.71 and we are asked to calculate hydrogen ion concentration. Let's plug in the given value in the formula:
![[OH^-]=10^-^5^.^7^1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5BOH%5E-%5D%3D10%5E-%5E5%5E.%5E7%5E1)
= 0.00000195 or 
So, the hydroxide ion concentration of the solution is
.
Converting mmHg to atm is solved by division.
Example: Convert 745.0 to atm.
Solution- divide the mmHg value by the 760.0 mmHg / atm.
745 mmHg over 760.0 mmHg/atm
atm value is 0.980263
Now, I am a medical student and we have never had to convert a BP (blood pressure) to atm from mmHg, only ever kPA. SO, I am going to take a guess here and say that when you do the work to solve this, you are going to convert the Systolic (upper #) which is the 145. You should get 0.190789 and then convert the Diastolic (lower #) which is 65. You should get 0.08552632.
So your fraction so to speak should read, 0.190789/0.08552632 or 0.190789 over 0.08552632
(Just to note that is way to low of a BP, although it is irrelevant) Best wishes and good luck. "Remember, never just look for the right answer, look for why it is the right answer!"