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dimulka [17.4K]
3 years ago
15

You add 500 mL of water at 10°C to 100 mL of water at 70°C. What is the

Physics
1 answer:
Sphinxa [80]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option (c) : 20°C

Explanation:

t(final) =  \frac{w1 \times t1 + w2 \times t2}{w1 + w2}

T(final) = 500* 10 + 100*70/600 = 20°C

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two billiard balls moving along the same line hit each other head-on. each has a mass of 0.220 kg; one has an initial velocity o
Tems11 [23]

Hi there!

Since the collision is elastic, we must also satisfy the following condition:

Ei = Ef, or:

KEi = KEf

Begin by writing an expression for momentum. (p = mv) Remember that one ball's direction is negative; in this instance, we can let the second ball be moving LEFT.

mv1 + mv2 = mvf1 + mvf2

0.220(1.84) + 0.220(-.530) = 0.220(vf1 + vf2)

0.2882/0.220 = vf1 + vf2

1.31 = vf1 + vf2

Now, we can express this as a conservation of energy:

1/2mv1² + 1/2mv2² = 1/2mvf1² + 1/2mvf2²

Plug in values and simplify:

0.403315 = 1/2m(vf1² + vf2²)

Simplify further:

3.6665 = vf1² + vf2²

Use the equation derived from momentum above and solve for one variable:

vf2 = 1.31 - vf1

Plug in this expression for vf2:

3.6665 = vf1² + (1.31 - vf1)²

Expand:

3.6665 = vf1² + 1.7161 - 2.62vf1 + vf1²

Simplify:

1.9504 = -2.62vf1 + 2vf1²

Solve for vf1 using a graphing calculator:

vf1 = -0.53 m/s or 1.84 m/s; we must figure out which one is correct.

Since v1 is heading to the right initially with a velocity of 1.84 m/s, we know that the ball's velocity could not have stayed the same in both magnitude and direction, so the final velocity must be -0.53 m/s.

Now, we can solve for the velocity of the other ball (initial of 0.53 m/s):

vf2 = 1.31 - (-0.53) = 1.84 m/s.

Now, you could have also made the connection that when two balls of the SAME MASS experience an ELASTIC collision, the velocities are simply "exchanged" from one to another. I just used this more "extensive" method to prove this.

7 0
2 years ago
What is the velocity of a wave with a wavelength of 1.5m and a frequency of 500 Hz
Schach [20]
Wave speed  =  (wavelength) x (frequency)

                       = (1.5 m) x (500 / sec)

                       =       750 m/s .  
4 0
2 years ago
A man's higher initial acceleration means that a man can outrun a horse over a very short race. A simple - but plausible - model
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

 t_man = 10.16 s,   t_horse = 10.73 s,  the winner is the man

Explanation:

To solve this problem we are going to find the time of each one separately.

Man we look for distance and time during acceleration

         x₁ =  v₀ t₁ + ½ a₁ t₁²

as it comes out of rest its initial velocity is zero

        x₁ = ½ a₁ t₁²

        x₁ = ½ 6.0 1.8²

        x₁ = 9.72 m

at this point its speed is

        v₁ = v₀ + a t

        v₁ = 0 + 6  1.8

        v₁ = 10.8 m / s

From here on it continues at constant speed, the distance that the man needs to travel from the point where the man leaves at 100m is

        x₂ = 100 - x₁

        x₂ = 100- 9.72

        x₂ = 90.28 m

the time for this part is

        v₁ = x₂ / t₂

         t₂ = x₂ / v₂

         t₂ = 90.28 / 10.8

         t₂ = 8.36 s

the total time for the man is

        t_man = t₁ + t₂

        t _man = 1.8 + 8.36

        t_man = 10.16 s

We repeat the calculation for the horse

distance traveled during the acceleration period

         x₃ = v₀ t + ½ a₂ t₃²

as part of rest its initial velocity is zero

        x₃ = ½  a₂ t₃²

        x₃ = ½  5.0  4.8²

        x₃ = 57.6 m

the velocity at this point is

         v₃ = v₀ + a₂ t₃

         v₃ = 0 + 5  4.8

         v₃ = 24 m / s

the rest of the route is at constant speed, the remaining distance

         x₄ = 200 - x₃

         x₄ = 200 - 57.6

         x₄ = 142.4 m

the time to go through it is

         t₄ = x₄ / v₃

         t₄ = 142.4 / 24

         t₄ = 5.93 s

the total time for the horse is

         t_horse = t₃ + t₄

         t_horse = 4.8 + 5.93

         t_horse = 10.73 s

when we compare the times we see that the man arrives a little before the horse, the winner is the man

5 0
3 years ago
Which are disadvantages of series circuits? Check all that apply.
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

C and F

Explanation:

A break in one wire causes all current to stop.

If one bulb goes out, the others go out.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A barometer accidentally contains 6.5 inches of water on top of the mercury column (so there is also water vapor instead of a va
Alisiya [41]

Answer:

(a). 14.4 lbf/in^2.

(b). 27.8 in, AS THE TEMPERATURE INCREASES, THE LENGTH OF MERCURY DECREASES.

Explanation:

So, from the question above we are given the following parameters which are going to help us in solving this particular Question;

=> The "barometer accidentally contains 6.5 inches of water on top of the mercury column (so there is also water vapor instead of a vacuum at the top of the barometer)"

=> "On a day when the temperature is 70oF, the mercury column height is 28.35 inches (corrected for thermal expansion)."

With these knowledge, let us delve right into the solution;

(a). The barometric pressure = water vapor pressure + acceleration due to gravity (ft/s^2) × water density(slug/ft^3) × {ft/12 in}^3 × [ height of mercury column + specific gravity of mercury × height of water column].

The barometric pressure= 0.363 + {(62.146) ÷ (12^3) × 390.6425}. = 14.4 lbf/in^2.

(b). { (13.55 × length of mercury) + 6.5 } × (62.15÷ 12^3) = 14.4 - 0.603.

Length of mercury = 27.8 in.

AS THE TEMPERATURE INCREASES, THE LENGTH OF MERCURY DECREASES.

7 0
2 years ago
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