All categories

2 years ago

Arrange the planets from strongest magnetic field to weakest magnetic field. Jupiter Earth Venus

Physics

2 answers:

andre [41]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

jupitar

Explanation:

Karo-lina-s [1.5K]2 years ago

4 0

The planets from strongest magnetic field to weakest magnetic field is Jupiter > Earth > Venus.

Magnetic fields are generated by the movement of magnetic material located in side the planet, usually at the core.

Jupiter, the biggest planet in our planetary system, likewise has the biggest magnetic field, producing a magnetosphere bigger than the Sun. It`s magnetic field is created by its fast rotation of 9.8 Earth hours. Dissimilar to Earth, Jupiter`s magnetic field is not produced by its core yet by interaction in its external core, which comprises of liquid metallic hydrogen.

Earth's magnetic field is produced by liquid metal at the center and Earth's fast pivot of 24 hours creates enough movement of the liquid to animate a magnetic field. While Venus does not have a magnetic field, likely on account of it's slow rate at around 243 Earth days, it's as yet shielded from sun oriented breezes utilizing an alternate kind of magnetism.

Therefore, the Jupiter have magnetic fields much stronger than that of the Earth and Venus.

You might be interested in

What could be the possible answer to the question ?<br><br>thankyou ~

Ganezh [65]

The value of the force, F₀, at equilibrium is equal to the horizontal

component of the tension in string 2.

Response:

The value of F₀ so that string 1 remains vertical is approximately <u>0.377·M·g</u>

<h3>How can the equilibrium of forces be used to find the value of F₀?</h3>

Given:

The weight of the rod = The sum of the vertical forces in the strings

Therefore;

M·g = T₂·cos(37°) + T₁

The weight of the rod is at the middle.

Taking moment about point (2) gives;

M·g × L = T₁ × 2·L

Therefore;

$T_1 = \mathbf{\dfrac{M \cdot g}{2}}$

Which gives;

$M \cdot g = \mathbf{T_2 \cdot cos(37 ^{\circ})+ \dfrac{M \cdot g}{2}}$

$T_2 = \dfrac{M \cdot g - \dfrac{M \cdot g}{2}}{cos(37 ^{\circ})} = \mathbf{\dfrac{M \cdot g}{2 \cdot cos(37 ^{\circ})}}}$

F₀ = T₂·sin(37°)

Which gives;

$F_0 = \dfrac{M \cdot g \cdot sin(37 ^{\circ})}{2 \cdot cos(37 ^{\circ})}} = \dfrac{M \cdot g \cdot tan(37 ^{\circ})}{2} \approx \mathbf{0.377 \cdot M \cdot g}$

F₀ ≈ <u>0.377·M·g</u>

<u />

Learn more about equilibrium of forces here:

brainly.com/question/6995192

3 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

One horse is pulling a 755 kg sled straight ahead applying a force of 1988 N. If the acceleration of the sled is 1.36 m/s2, what

Inessa [10]

Answer:

The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.13

Explanation:

Newton's second law states that the acceleration of an object is proportional to the net force on it, the factor of proportionality is the mass. So, we can express that law mathematically as:

$\sum\overrightarrow{F}=m\overrightarrow{a}$ (1)

With F the net force, m the mass and a the acceleration of the object. In our case we're interested on what's happening to the sled, then we have to analyze the forces on it, those forces are the weight and the normal force on the vertical direction and the pulling force and frictional force in the horizontal direction. So, because (1) is a vector equation we can express that in their vertical (y) and horizontal (x) components:

$F_y=ma_y$ (2)

$F_x=ma_x$ (3)

On y we have that the acceleration is zero because the sled is not moving upward or downward, remember that the net force on y is the weight (W) pointing downward and the normal force pointing upward:

$F_y=W+n=0$

Following the convention that positive is upward and negative downward, W=mg=(755)(-9.81):

$F_y=(755)(-9.81)+n=0$

$n=7406.55 N$ (4)

Now on the x direction we have the sum of the forces is the pulling force (T) and friction force (f)

$F_x=F+f=ma_x$

Choosing the direction where the horse is pulling F=1988N and the acceleration should be positive too, then:

$1988+f=m(1.36)$

$f=(755)(1.36)-1988=-961.2 N$

The negative sign means it's in the opposite direction the horse is pulling

The frictional force is related with the coefficient of kinetic friction in the next way:

$|f|=\mu_k n$

with μk the coefficient of kinetic friction, and n the normal force that we already found on (4), so we simply solve the last equation for μk:

$\mu_k=\frac{|f|}{n}=\frac{961.2}{7406.55}=0.13$

4 0

3 years ago

Which one of the following temperatures is equal to 5°C?

natali 33 [55]

Answer : The correct option is, (D) 278 K

Explanation :

We are given temperature $5^oC$ .

Now the conversion factor used for the temperature is,

$K=^oC+273$

where, K is kelvin and $^oC$ is Celsius.

Now put the value of temperature, we get

$K=5^oC+273=278K$

Therefore, the temperature 278 K is equal to the $5^oC$

7 0

2 years ago

A small metal ball is suspended from the ceiling by a thread of negligible mass. The ball is then set in motion in a horizontal

Gemiola [76]

Answer:

Time taken, $T=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{l\ cos\theta}{g}}$

Explanation:

It is given that, a small metal ball is suspended from the ceiling by a thread of negligible mass. The ball is then set in motion in a horizontal circle so that the thread’s trajectory describes a cone as shown in attached figure.

From the figure,

The sum of forces in y direction is :

$T\ cos\theta-mg=0$