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kupik [55]
3 years ago
7

Arrange the planets from strongest magnetic field to weakest magnetic field. Jupiter Earth Venus

Physics
2 answers:
andre [41]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

jupitar

Explanation:

Karo-lina-s [1.5K]3 years ago
4 0

The planets from strongest magnetic field to weakest magnetic field is Jupiter > Earth > Venus.

Magnetic fields are generated by the movement of magnetic material located in side the planet, usually at the core.

Jupiter, the biggest planet in our planetary system, likewise has the biggest magnetic field, producing a magnetosphere bigger than the Sun. It`s magnetic field is created by its fast rotation of 9.8 Earth hours. Dissimilar to Earth, Jupiter`s magnetic field is not produced by its core yet by interaction in its external core, which comprises of liquid metallic hydrogen.

Earth's magnetic field is produced by liquid metal at the center and Earth's fast pivot of 24 hours creates enough movement of the liquid to animate a magnetic field. While Venus does not have a magnetic field, likely on account of it's slow rate at around 243 Earth days, it's as yet shielded from sun oriented breezes utilizing an alternate kind of magnetism.  

Therefore, the Jupiter have magnetic fields much stronger than that of the Earth and Venus.  


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Total internal reflection can most accurately be described as...
Phoenix [80]

Answer:

a. reflection of all the light at a surface.

Explanation:

When light rays passing from the denser medium to the rarer medium and the angle of incidence is greater  than the critical angle, the refraction of light does not take place and the incident ray is totally reflected back  into the denser medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.

There are two conditions that need to be fulfilled in order for the total internal reflection to take place:

1. The ray of light should be incident from denser to rarer medium.

2. The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle.

Therefore, the correct option will be:

<u>a. reflection of all the light at a surface.</u>

4 0
3 years ago
A 20 g ball is fired horizontally with speed v0 toward a 100 g ball hanging motionless from a 1.0-m-long string. The balls un-de
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:7.93 m/s

Explanation:

Given

mass of ball m_1=20\ gm

Mass of hanging ball m_2=100\ gm

Length of string L=1\ m

Maximum angle turned \theta _{max}=50^{\circ}

v_o is the initial velocity of ball 1  and 0 is the initial  velocity of ball 2

For Perfectly elastic final velocity of ball 1 and 2 is given by

v_2'=\frac{2m_1}{m_1+m_2}\cdot v_1-\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\cdot v_2

v_1'=\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}\cdot v_1+\frac{2m_2}{m_1+m_2}\cdot v_2

where v_1and v_2 are the velocity of 1 and 2 before collision

thus v_2'=\frac{2\times 20}{120}v_0-0

v_2'=\frac{v_o}{3}

v_1'=\frac{20-100}{120}\times v_o+0

v_1'=-\frac{2}{3}v_o

By energy conservation on second ball we get

Kinetic energy=Potential Energy

\frac{1}{2}m_2(v_2')^2=m_2gL(1-\cos \theta )

v_2'=\sqrt{2gl(1-\cos \theta )}

v_2'=\sqrt{2\times 9.8\times 1(1-0.642)}

v_2'=2.64\ m/s

thus v_o=3\times v_2'=7.93\ m/s

5 0
3 years ago
What is the first step a scientist usually take to solve a problem?
trasher [3.6K]
Make prediction about what will happen certain circumstances
6 0
4 years ago
Please help! Find the time. 8 POINTS!!
Fantom [35]

Answer:

Time = 4.1 s

Explanation:

Momentum = mv = (12000)(4.25) = 51000 kg m/s

Momentum = Impulse (mv = ft) so

51000 = (9200)t

t = (51000)/(9200) = 5.54 seconds

Impulse of the current and the engine must equal so (ft = ft)

51000 = (12500)t

t = (51000)/(12500) = 4.08

But accounting for significant figures, time equals 4.1 seconds

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If one of two interacting charges is doubled, the force between the charges will _____________.
malfutka [58]

If one of two interacting charges is doubled, the force between the charges will double.

Explanation:

The force between two charges is given by Coulomb's law

F=\frac{k q1 q2}{r^{2}}

K=constant= 9 x 10⁹ N m²/C²

q1= charge on first particle

q2= charge on second particle

r= distance between the two charges

Now if the first charge is doubled,

we get F'=\frac{k (2q1) q2}{r^{2}}

F'= 2 F

Thus the force gets doubled.

4 0
3 years ago
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