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RSB [31]
3 years ago
9

in the diagram, q2 is +34.4*10^-6 C, and q3 is -72.8*10^-6 C. The net force on q2 is 225 N to the right. What is q1? Include the

sign of the charge (+ or -). PLS HELP

Physics
1 answer:
sesenic [268]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

  q₁ = -6.54 10⁻⁵ C

Explanation:

Force is a vector quantity, but since all charges are on the x-axis, we can work in one dimension, let's apply Newton's second law

                F = F₁₂ + F₂₃

the electric force is given by Coulomb's law

                F = k q₁q₂ / r₁₂²

let's write the expression for each force

                F₂₃ = k q₂ q₃ / r₂₃²

                F₂₃ = 9 10⁹ 34.4 10⁻⁶ 72.8 10⁻⁶ / 0.1²

                F₂₃ = 2.25 10³ N

               

                F₁₂ = k q₁q₂ / r₁₂²

                F₁₂ = 9 10⁹ q₁ 34.4 10⁻⁶ / 0.1²

                F₁₂ = q₁   3,096 10⁷ N

we substitute in the first equation

                225 = q₁  3,096 10⁷ +2.25 10³

                q₁ = (225 - 2.25 10³) / 3,096 10⁷

                q₁ = -6.54 10⁻⁵ C

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Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by
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A) v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B) r=\frac{mv}{qB}

C) T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

D) \omega=\frac{qB}{m}

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Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

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On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

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According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

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B)

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where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

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F=m\frac{v^2}{r}

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Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

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C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference (2\pi r) and the velocity of the particle (v):

T=\frac{2\pi r}{v} (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

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So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}

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r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

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Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

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