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3 years ago

Waves that move matter back and forth are called a.transverse waves b.longitudinal wave c. Medium wave

Physics

2 answers:

jok3333 [9.3K]3 years ago

8 0

The answer is choice B
Longitudinal wave

Travka [436]3 years ago

3 0

<span>Waves that move matter back and forth are called a.transverse waves <u>b.longitudinal wave</u> c. Medium wave</span>

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Two cars travel in the same direction along a straight highway, one at a constant speed of 55 mi/h and the other at 60 mi/h.How

Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

The distance traveled by the faster car when it is 15 mins ahead of the slower car is 165 miles.

Explanation:

Given;

speed of the faster car, v₁ = 60 mi/h

speed of the slower car, v₂ = 55 mi/h

Let the distance traveled by the faster car when it is 15 mins ahead of the slower car = x miles

$\frac{x}{55} - \frac{x}{60} = \frac{15}{60}$

Note: divide 15 mins by 60 to convert to hours for consistency in the units.

$\frac{x}{55} - \frac{x}{60} = \frac{15}{60}\\\\multiple \ through \ by \ 660\\\\12x - 11x = 165\\\\x = 165 \ miles$

Therefore, the distance traveled by the faster car when it is 15 mins ahead of the slower car is 165 miles.

4 0

3 years ago

If upthrust and weight of a liquid displaced when a solid is immersed in it are U and W respectively, then

Stels [109]

Definitely 4 because it’s u for I hi ub u

5 0

2 years ago

In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 13.1 cm2 is rotated during the time interval 3.10

sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

A) $\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9}$

B) $\Phi=0 Wb$

C) $emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V$

Explanation:

Given that:

no. of turns i the coil, $n=200$

area of the coil, $a=13.1 \times 10^{-4}\,m^2$

time interval of rotation, $t=3.1\times 10^{-2}\,s$

intensity of magnetic field, $B=6.4\times 10^{-5}\,T$

(A)

Initially the coil area is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

So, magnetic flux is given as:

$\Phi=B.a\,cos \theta$ ..................................(1)

$\theta$ is the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field lines. Area vector is always perpendicular to the area given. In this case area vector is parallel to the magnetic field.

$\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 0^{\circ}$

$\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9} Wb$

(B)

In this case the plane area is parallel to the magnetic field i.e. the area vector is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

∴ $\theta=90^{\circ}$

From eq. (1)

$\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 90^{\circ}$

$\Phi=0 Wb$

(C)

According to the Faraday's Law we have:

$emf=n\frac{B.a}{t}$

$emf=\frac{200\times 6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}}{3.1\times 10^{-2}}$

$emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V$

7 0

3 years ago

Which of the following are events?

ira [324]

Answer:

G..................

3 0

3 years ago

How to change V=72km/hr to m/s

lapo4ka [179]

Multiply by (1000 meters / 1 km).
Then multiply by (1 hour / 3600 seconds).

Both of those fractions are equal to ' 1 ', because the top
and bottom numbers are equal, so the multiplications
won't change the VALUE of the 72 km/hr. They'll only
change the units.

(72 km/hour) · (1000 meters / 1 km) · (1 hour / 3600 seconds)

= (72 · 1000 / 3600) (km·meter·hour / hour·km·second)

= 20 meter/second

7 0

3 years ago