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Verizon [17]
3 years ago
6

Convert 3.5revolutions to radians.

Physics
2 answers:
olga55 [171]3 years ago
8 0

As we know that

1 revolution = 2\pi radian

now we know that

3.5 revolution = 3.5 rev\times \frac{2\pi rad}{1 rev}

3.5 rev = 21.98 rad

so it is 21.98 radian

maw [93]3 years ago
7 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

<u>The right answer is </u><u>21.98 rad </u>

<h2>Explanation:</h2>

You can see that  

2 π radians becomes one revolution when you use the arc length formula:

s=rθ

Let  

θ =2π . That means:

s =C=2πr

By putting the values and solving we get 21.98 radians

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Having difficulty finding the PE and KE for these values no mass is given. Does anyone know to go solve these?
Alexandra [31]

11) 1.04\cdot 10^7 J

12) 1.04\cdot 10^7 J

13) 50.0 m/s

14) 41.6 m/s

Explanation:

11)

The potential energy of an object is the energy possessed by the object due to its position relative to the ground. It is given by

PE=mgh

where

m is the mass of the object

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the height relative to the ground

Here in this problem, when the train is at the top, we have:

m = 8325 kg (mass of the train + riders)

g=9.8 m/s^2 (acceleration due to gravity)

h = 127 m (height of the train at the top)

Substituting,

PE=(8325)(9.8)(127)=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

12)

According to the law of conservation of energy, the total mechanical energy of the train must be conserved (in absence of friction). So we can write:

KE_t + PE_t = KE_b + PE_b

where

KE_t is the kinetic energy at the top

PE_t is the potential energy at the top

KE_b is the kinetic energy at the bottom

PE_b is the potential energy at the bottom

The kinetic energy is the energy due to motion; since the train is at rest at the top, we have

KE_t=0

Also, at the bottom the height is zero, so the potential energy is zero

PE_b=0

Therefore, we find:

KE_b=PE_t=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

13)

The kinetic energy of an object is the energy of the object due to its motion. Mathematically, it is given by

KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the object

v is the speed of the object

From question 12), we know that the kinetic energy of the train at the bottom is

KE=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

We also know that the mass is

m = 8325 kg

Therefore, we can calculate the speed of the train at the bottom:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2KE}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(1.04\cdot 10^7)}{8325}}=50.0 m/s

14)

At the top of the second hill, the total mechanical energy of the train is still conserved.

Therefore, we can write again:

KE_1 + PE_1 = KE_2 + PE_2

where

KE_1 is the kinetic energy at the top of the 1st hill

PE_1 is the potential energy at the top of the 1st hill

KE_2 is the kinetic energy at the top of the 2nd hill

PE_2 is the potential energy at the top of the 2nd hill

From the previous questions, we know that

KE_1=0

and

PE_1=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

The height of the second hill is

h = 39 m

So we can also find the potential energy at the second hill:

PE_2=mgh=(8325)(9.8)(39)=3.2\cdot 10^6 J

So, the kinetic energy at the second hill is

KE_2=PE_1-PE_2=1.04\cdot 10^7 - 3.2\cdot 10^6 =7.2\cdot 10^6 J

And so, the speed is

v=\sqrt{\frac{2KE_2}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(7.2\cdot 10^6)}{8325}}=41.6 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
A very long string (linear density 0.7 kg/m ) is stretched with a tension of 70 N . One end of the string oscillates up and down
rewona [7]

To develop this problem it is necessary to apply the concepts related to Wavelength, The relationship between speed, voltage and linear density as well as frequency. By definition the speed as a function of the tension and the linear density is given by

V = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\rho}}

Where,

T = Tension

\rho = Linear density

Our data are given by

Tension , T = 70 N

Linear density , \rho = 0.7 kg/m

Amplitude , A = 7 cm = 0.07 m

Period , t = 0.35 s

Replacing our values,

V = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\rho}}

V = \sqrt{\frac{70}{0.7}

V = 10m/s

Speed can also be expressed as

V = \lambda f

Re-arrange to find \lambda

\lambda = \frac{V}{f}

Where,

f = Frequency,

Which is also described in function of the Period as,

f = \frac{1}{T}

f = \frac{1}{0.35}

f = 2.86 Hz

Therefore replacing to find \lambda

\lambda = \frac{10}{2.86}

\lambda = 3.49m

Therefore the wavelength of the waves created in the string is 3.49m

3 0
3 years ago
A merry-go-round is shaped like a uniform disk and has moment of inertia of 50,000 kg m 2 . It is rotating so that it has an ang
lapo4ka [179]

Answer:

r = 20 m

Explanation:

The formula for the angular momentum of a rotating body is given as:

L = mvr

where,

L = Angular Momentum = 10000 kgm²/s

m = mass

v = speed = 2 m/s

r = radius of merry-go-round

Therefore,

10000 kg.m²/s = mr(2 m/s)

m r = (10000 kg.m²/s)/(2 m/s)

m r = 5000 kg.m   ------------- equation 1

Now, the moment of inertia of a solid uniform disc about its axis through its center is given as:

I = (1/2) m r²

where,

I = moment of inertia = 50000 kg.m²

Therefore,

50000 kg.m² = (1/2)(m r)(r)

using equation 1, we get:

50000 kg.m² = (1/2)(5000 kg.m)(r)

(50000 kg.m²)/(2500 kg.m) = r

<u>r = 20 m</u>

5 0
3 years ago
What happens to the gravitational force between two objects when their distance is changed?
kykrilka [37]
If they become closer, it is increased, and if the objects become farther away is decreased.
7 0
3 years ago
The angular velocity (in rpm) of the blade of a blender is given in. If θ=0rad at t=0s, what is the blade's angular position at
Liula [17]

Answer:

θ = 20.9 rad

Explanation:

In a blender after a short period of acceleration the blade is kept at a constant angular velocity, for which we can use the relationship

           w = θ / t

           θ = w t

if we know the value of the angular velocity we can find the angular position, we must remember that all the angles must be in radians

suppose that the angular velocity is w = 10 rpm, let us reduce to the SI system

          w = 10 rpm (\frac{2\pi  rad}{1 rev}) ( \frac{1 min}{60 s} )

= 1,047 rads

let's calculate

          θ = 1,047 20

          θ = 20.9 rad

7 0
3 years ago
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