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jok3333 [9.3K]
2 years ago
9

An electromagnetic wave of intensity 150 W/m2 is incident normally on a rectangular black card with sides of 25 cm and 30 cm tha

t absorbs all the radiation. Find the force exerted on the card by the radiation.
Physics
1 answer:
LenKa [72]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

3.75 × 10⁻⁸ N

Explanation:

Given:

Intensity of the electromagnetic wave, I = 150 W/m²

Sides of the board = 25 cm (= 0.25 m) and 30 cm (= 0.30 m)

therefore,

the area of the rectangular box, A = 0.25 × 0.30 = 0.075 m²

Now,

force exerted on the card by the radiation, F = \frac{IA}{C}

here,

C is the speed of the light = 3 × 10⁸ m/s

on substituting the respective values, we get

F = \frac{150\times0.075}{3\times10^8}

or

F = 3.75 × 10⁻⁸ N

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TiliK225 [7]

The weight of a person increase when the elevator is going up.

<h3>Weight of the person in the elevator</h3>

The weight of the person in the elevator is calculated as follows;

<h3>When the person is going up</h3>

F = ma + mg

F = m(a + g)

where;

  • a is acceleration of the person
  • g is acceleration due to gravity

<h3>When the person is going down</h3>

F = mg - ma

F = m(g - a)

Thus, the weight of a person increase when the elevator is going up.

Learn more about weight here: brainly.com/question/2337612

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2 years ago
WILL GIVE BRAINLY!! PLEASE HELPP
LekaFEV [45]

The purpose of the machine is to leverage its mechanical advantage such that the force it outputs to move the heavy object is greater than the force required for you to input.

But there's no such thing as a free lunch! When you apply the conservation of energy, the work the machine does on the object will always be equal to (in an ideal machine) or less than the work you input to the machine.

This means that you will apply a lesser force for a longer distance so that the machine can supply a greater force on the object to push it a smaller distance. That is the trade-off of using the machine: it enables you to use a smaller force but at the cost of having to apply that smaller force for a greater distance.

The answer is: The work input required will equal the work output.

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An unknown galaxy has a large flattened core. Which of the following classifications would best fit this galaxy's description? I
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Explanation:

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3 years ago
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Only the sun and other stars in space generate these kinds of waves:
Reika [66]

Answer:

<h2>Ultraviolet Waves.</h2>

Explanation:

The Sun emits waves called "Solar Waves", which have a wavelengths between 160 and 400 nanometers. According to the electromagnetic spectrum, these waves are defined as Ultraviolet, which have a frequency around the order of 10^{16}, which is really intense and high energy.

Therefore, the answer is Ultraviolet Waves.

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3 years ago
A thin uniform rod of mass M and length L is bent at its center so that the two segments are now perpendicular to each other. Fi
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

(a) I_A=1/12ML²

(b) I_B=1/3ML²

Explanation:

We know that the moment of inertia of a rod of mass M and lenght L about its center is 1/12ML².

(a) If the rod is bent exactly at its center, the distance from every point of the rod to the axis doesn't change. Since the moment of inertia depends on the distance of every mass to this axis, the moment of inertia remains the same. In other words, I_A=1/12ML².

(b) The two ends and the point where the two segments meet form an isorrectangle triangle. So the distance between the ends d can be calculated using the Pythagorean Theorem:

d=\sqrt{(\frac{1}{2}L) ^{2}+(\frac{1}{2}L) ^{2} } =\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}L^{2} } =\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} } L=\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2} L

Next, the point where the two segments meet, the midpoint of the line connecting the two ends of the rod, and an end of the rod form another rectangle triangle, so we can calculate the distance between the two axis x using Pythagorean Theorem again:

x=\sqrt{(\frac{1}{2}L)^{2}-(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}L)  ^{2} } =\sqrt{\frac{1}{8} L^{2} } =\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} L=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4} L

Finally, using the Parallel Axis Theorem, we calculate I_B:

I_B=I_A+Mx^{2} \\\\I_B=\frac{1}{12} ML^{2} +\frac{1}{4}  ML^{2} =\frac{1}{3} ML^{2}

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2 years ago
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