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Svetach [21]
2 years ago
9

A player throws a fair die and simultaneously flips a fair coin. If the coin lands heads, then she wins twice, and if tails, the

n she wins one-half of the value that appears on the die. Determine her expected winnings.
Physics
1 answer:
vlabodo [156]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

4.375

Explanation:

Let random variable be X represent the result of toss coin

Let Y be the random variable represent number on dice.

Probability of getting heads = P(H) = 1/2

Probability of getting tails = P(T) = 1/2

Probability of getting number ob die

P(1) = P(2) = P(3) = P(4) = P(5)  =P(6) = 1/6

Expected winning when coin landed head

E_{Head}(\dfrac{Y}{X}) = E(2Y).P(X = H)

=2. \dfrac{1}{2}(1.\dfrac{1}{6}+2.\dfrac{1}{6}+3.\dfrac{1}{6}.......+6..\dfrac{1}{6})

= 3.5

Expected winning when coin landed tails

E_{Tails}(\dfrac{Y}{X}) = E(\dfrac{1}{2}Y).P(X = T)

=\dfrac{1}{2}. \dfrac{1}{2}(1.\dfrac{1}{6}+2.\dfrac{1}{6}+3.\dfrac{1}{6}.......+6..\dfrac{1}{6})

= 0.875

Expected winning

= E_{Head}(\dfrac{Y}{X}) + E_{Tails}(\dfrac{Y}{X})

= 3.5 + 0.875

= 4.375

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MA_775_DIABLO [31]

The lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

To find the answer, we have to know more about the infinite well.

<h3>What is the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well?</h3>
  • It is given that, the infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
  • We have the expression for energy of electron in an infinite well as,

                  E_n=\frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}

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                m=9.1*10^{-31}kg\\L=0.050*10^{-3}m\\h=6.63*10^{-34}Js\\n=1

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                E_1=\frac{(6.63*10^{-34})^2}{8*9.1*10^{-31}*(0.050*10^{-3})}=1.2*10^{-33}J

Thus, we can conclude that, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

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brainly.com/question/20317353

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7 0
10 months ago
A sample of metallic frewium weighs 185N on a spring scale in air. When immersed in pure water, the frewium pulls on the scale w
balu736 [363]

Wow !  This one could have some twists and turns in it.
Fasten your seat belt.  It's going to be a boompy ride.

-- The buoyant force is precisely the missing <em>30N</em> .

--  In order to calculate the density of the frewium sample, we need to know
its mass and its volume.  Then, density = mass/volume .

-- From the weight of the sample in air, we can closely calculate its mass.

   Weight = (mass) x (gravity)
   185N = (mass) x (9.81 m/s²)
   Mass = (185N) / (9.81 m/s²) = <u>18.858 kilograms of frewium</u> 

-- For its volume, we need to calculate the volume of the displaced water.

The buoyant force is equal to the weight of displaced water, and the
density of water is about 1 gram per cm³.  So the volume of the
displaced water (in cm³) is the same as the number of grams in it.

The weight of the displaced water is 30N, and weight = (mass) (gravity).

           30N = (mass of the displaced water) x (9.81 m/s²)

           Mass = (30N) / (9.81 m/s²) = 3.058 kilograms

           Volume of displaced water = <u>3,058 cm³</u>

Finally, density of the frewium sample = (mass)/(volume)

      Density = (18,858 grams) / (3,058 cm³) = <em>6.167 gm/cm³</em> (rounded)

================================================

I'm thinking that this must  be the hard way to do it,
because I noticed that

       (weight in air) / (buoyant force) =  185N / 30N = <u>6.1666...</u>

So apparently . . .

        (density of a sample) / (density of water) =

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I never knew that, but it's a good factoid to keep in my tool-box.


3 0
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Two skaters, a man and a woman, are standing on ice. Neglect any friction between the skate blades and the ice. The mass of the
IRISSAK [1]

Answer:

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m₁ = 95 Kg

m₂ = 51 Kg

F = 60 N

a₁ = ?

a₂ = ?

To get the acceleration (magnitude and direction) of the man we apply

∑Fx = m*a   (⇒)

F = m₁*a₁         ⇒      60 N = 95 Kg*a₁    

⇒  a₁ = (60N / 95Kg) = 0.63 m/s²  (⇒)  East

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F = -m₂*a₂         ⇒      60 N = -51 Kg*a₂    

⇒  a₂ = (60N / 51Kg) = -1.18 m/s²  (West)

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Answer:Rubidium or answer 1

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