The lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.
To find the answer, we have to know more about the infinite well.
<h3>What is the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well?</h3>
- It is given that, the infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
- We have the expression for energy of electron in an infinite well as,


- Thus, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is,

Thus, we can conclude that, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.
Learn more about the infinite well here:
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Wow ! This one could have some twists and turns in it.
Fasten your seat belt. It's going to be a boompy ride.
-- The buoyant force is precisely the missing <em>30N</em> .
-- In order to calculate the density of the frewium sample, we need to know
its mass and its volume. Then, density = mass/volume .
-- From the weight of the sample in air, we can closely calculate its mass.
Weight = (mass) x (gravity)
185N = (mass) x (9.81 m/s²)
Mass = (185N) / (9.81 m/s²) = <u>18.858 kilograms of frewium</u>
-- For its volume, we need to calculate the volume of the displaced water.
The buoyant force is equal to the weight of displaced water, and the
density of water is about 1 gram per cm³. So the volume of the
displaced water (in cm³) is the same as the number of grams in it.
The weight of the displaced water is 30N, and weight = (mass) (gravity).
30N = (mass of the displaced water) x (9.81 m/s²)
Mass = (30N) / (9.81 m/s²) = 3.058 kilograms
Volume of displaced water = <u>3,058 cm³</u>
Finally, density of the frewium sample = (mass)/(volume)
Density = (18,858 grams) / (3,058 cm³) = <em>6.167 gm/cm³</em> (rounded)
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I'm thinking that this must be the hard way to do it,
because I noticed that
(weight in air) / (buoyant force) = 185N / 30N = <u>6.1666...</u>
So apparently . . .
(density of a sample) / (density of water) =
(weight of the sample in air) / (buoyant force in water) .
I never knew that, but it's a good factoid to keep in my tool-box.
Answer:
a₁ = 0.63 m/s² (East)
a₂ = -1.18 m/s² (West)
Explanation:
m₁ = 95 Kg
m₂ = 51 Kg
F = 60 N
a₁ = ?
a₂ = ?
To get the acceleration (magnitude and direction) of the man we apply
∑Fx = m*a (⇒)
F = m₁*a₁ ⇒ 60 N = 95 Kg*a₁
⇒ a₁ = (60N / 95Kg) = 0.63 m/s² (⇒) East
To get the acceleration (magnitude and direction) of the woman we apply
∑Fx = m*a (⇒)
F = -m₂*a₂ ⇒ 60 N = -51 Kg*a₂
⇒ a₂ = (60N / 51Kg) = -1.18 m/s² (West)
For every case we apply Newton’s 3
d Law
Average speed =
(distance covered during some period of time)
divided by
(length of time to cover that distance).