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katrin [286]
3 years ago
13

A tuning fork has a frequency of 280 Hz and the wavelength of the sound produced is 1.5 meters. Calculate the wave's frequency a

nd period. Show Your Work!

Physics
1 answer:
s2008m [1.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer would be 420 m/s

Explanation:

Look in attachment ⬇

I Hope this Helps!!!

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The ideal mechanical advantage of a machine reflects the increase or decrease in force there world be without friction, it is al
brilliants [131]

True: the ideal mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than the actual mechanical advantage because all machines must overcome friction.

Explanation:

For a simple machine, it is possible to calculate two types of mechanical advantage:

1) The Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA) is given by

IMA=\frac{d_e}{d_r}

where

d_r is the resistance arm

d_e is the effort arm

The IMA gives the mechanical advantage of the machine if there are no friction forces acting on it, and if all the work in input is converted into work in output with no loss of energy

2) The Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA) is given by

AMA=\frac{L}{E}

where

L is the load (the force in output)

E is the effort (the force in input)

The AMA gives the real mechanical advantage of the machine. For an ideal machine,

AMA=IMA

Because there is no loss of energy due to friction.

For a real machine instead,

AMA

because part of the input energy is converted into thermal energy and other forms of energy due to the presence of friction, so it is "wasted" energy.

Learn more about levers and machines:

brainly.com/question/5352966

#LearnwithBrainly

8 0
3 years ago
A 0.130 m radius, 485-turn coil is rotated one-fourth of a revolution in 4.17 ms, originally having its plane perpendicular to a
Lady_Fox [76]

Answer:

The magnetic field strength needed is 1.619 T

Explanation:

Given;

Number of turns, N = 485-turn

Radius of coil, r = 0.130 m

time of revolution, t =  4.17 ms = 0.00417 s

average induced emf, V = 10,000 V.

Average induced emf is given as;

V = -ΔФ/Δt

where;

ΔФ is change in flux

Δt is change in time

ΔФ = -NBA(Cos \theta_f - Cos \theta_i)

where;

N is the number of turns

B is the magnetic field strength

A is the area of the coil = πr²

θ is the angle of inclination of the coil and the magnetic field,

\theta_f = 90^o\\\theta_i = 0^o

V = NBACos0/t

V = NBA/t

B = (Vt)/NA

B = (10,000 x 0.00417) / (485 x π x 0.13²)

B =1.619 T

Thus, the magnetic field strength needed is 1.619 T

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do I do these? My teacher didn’t show us how.
melisa1 [442]

Explanation:

Displacement is simply the change in position.  So in the first part of problem 1, looking at the graph between 0 s and 2 s, the position changes from 0 m to -4 m.  So the displacement is:

Δx =  -4 m − 0 m

Δx = -4 m

Between 2 s and 4 s, the position stays at -4 m.  The displacement is:

Δx = -4 m − (-4 m)

Δx = 0 m

Finally, between 4 s and 6 s, the position goes from -4 m to 6 m.  The displacement is:

Δx = 6 m − (-4 m)

Δx = 10 m

The net displacement is the change in position from 0 s to 6 s:

Δx = 6 m − 0 m

Δx = 6 m

In the second part of problem 1, we have a velocity vs time graph.

Car 1 starts with 0 velocity and ends with a velocity of 6 m/s, so it is accelerating and constantly moving to the right.

Car 2 starts with a velocity of -6 m/s and ends with a velocity of 6 m/s.  It is also accelerating, but first it is moving to the left, comes to a stop at t = 3 s, then moves to the right.

Car 3 starts with a velocity of 2 m/s and ends with a velocity of 2 m/s.  So it is moving constantly to the right, but never speeds up or slows down.

We want to know when two of the cars meet.  Unfortunately, this isn't as easy as looking for where the lines cross on the graph.  We need to calculate their displacements.  We can do this by finding the area under the graph (assuming all the cars start from the same point).

Let's start with Car 2.  Half of the area is below the x-axis, and half is above.  Without doing calculations, we can say the total displacement for this car is 0.  This means it ends back up where it started, and that it never meets either of the other cars, both of which have positive displacements.

So we know Car 1 and Car 3 meet, we just have to find where and when.  For Car 1, the area under the curve is a triangle.  So its displacement is:

Δx = ½ t v(t)

where t is the time and v(t) is the velocity of Car 1 at that time.  Since the line has a slope of 1 and y intercept of 0, we know v(t) = t.  So:

Δx = ½ t²

Now look at Car 3.  The area under the curve is a rectangle.  So its displacement is:

Δx = 2t

When the two cars have the same displacement:

½ t² = 2t

t² = 4t

t² − 4t = 0

t (t − 4) = 0

t = 0, 4

t = 0 refers to the time when both cars are at the starting point, so t = 4 is the answer we're looking for.  Where are the cars at this time?  Simply plug in t = 4 into either of the equations we found:

Δx = 8

So Cars 1 and 3 meet at 4 s and 8 m.

7 0
3 years ago
In a thunderstorm, the air must be ionized by a high voltage before a conducting path for a lightning bolt can be created. an el
nydimaria [60]
We know that the electric field is equal to 1 E 6 V/m

The distance between the thundercloud and the ground is 1.6km = 1600m

Electric field = Voltage/distance

This means that the breakdown voltage must be equal to

V = 1 E 6 V/m * 1600m = 1.6 E 9 V = 1.6 GV
4 0
3 years ago
Diffraction occurs when waves _____ after passing through an opening
saw5 [17]
The answer to your question is A
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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