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Igoryamba
3 years ago
12

Copper is used in wiring because its metallic bonding gives its _______ a high degree of freedom and the material a high conduct

ivity.
A) electrons

B) neutrons

C) protons
Physics
2 answers:
Alecsey [184]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

electrons

Explanation:

Alexxx [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Electrons

Explanation:

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A mass is oscillating with amplitude A at the end of a spring.
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

A) x=\pm \frac{A}{2\sqrt{2}}

The total energy of the system is equal to the maximum elastic potential energy, that is achieved when the displacement is equal to the amplitude (x=A):

E=\frac{1}{2}kA^2 (1)

where k is the spring constant.

The total energy, which is conserved, at any other point of the motion is the sum of elastic potential energy and kinetic energy:

E=U+K=\frac{1}{2}kx^2+\frac{1}{2}mv^2 (2)

where x is the displacement, m the mass, and v the speed.

We want to know the displacement x at which the elastic potential energy is 1/3 of the kinetic energy:

U=\frac{1}{3}K

Using (2) we can rewrite this as

U=\frac{1}{3}(E-U)=\frac{1}{3}E-\frac{1}{3}U\\U=\frac{E}{4}

And using (1), we find

U=\frac{E}{4}=\frac{\frac{1}{2}kA^2}{4}=\frac{1}{8}kA^2

Substituting U=\frac{1}{2}kx^2 into the last equation, we find the value of x:

\frac{1}{2}kx^2=\frac{1}{8}kA^2\\x=\pm \frac{A}{2\sqrt{2}}

B) x=\pm \frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}A

In this case, the kinetic energy is 1/10 of the total energy:

K=\frac{1}{10}E

Since we have

K=E-U

we can write

E-U=\frac{1}{10}E\\U=\frac{9}{10}E

And so we find:

\frac{1}{2}kx^2 = \frac{9}{10}(\frac{1}{2}kA^2)=\frac{9}{20}kA^2\\x^2 = \frac{9}{10}A^2\\x=\pm \frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}A

3 0
3 years ago
A 70.0 kg ice hockey goalie, originally at rest, has a 0.110 kg hockey puck slapped at him at a velocity of 31.5 m/s. Suppose th
NISA [10]

Answer

given,

mass of the goalie(m₁) = 70 kg

mass of the puck (m₂)= 0.11 kg

velocity of the puck = 31.5 m/s

elastic collision

v_1=\dfrac{m_2-m_1}{m_1+m_2}v_1+\dfrac{2m_2}{m_1+m_2}v_2

v_{pf}=\dfrac{0.11-70}{0.11+70}31.5+\dfrac{2m_2}{m_1+m_2}\times (0)

v_{pf}=-31.4\ m/s

v'_2 = \dfrac{2m_1v_1}{m_1+m_2}-\dfrac{(m_2-m_1)v_2}{m_2+m_1}

v_{gf} = \dfrac{2\times 0.11\times 31.5}{0.11+70}-\dfrac{(0.11-70)\times 0}{m_1+m_2}

v_{gf} = \dfrac{2\times 0.11\times 31.5}{0.11+70}

v_{gf} = 0.0988\ m/s

4 0
3 years ago
Gggcdfubrdegubtcwftvf y day rx u e HHS’s forget h
aev [14]

Answer:

um . . . yes ?

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two electromagnets contain the same types of magnets
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer: The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than

the second

Explanation:

Since the two electromagnets contain the same types of magnets and wires. If the magnet In the first moves much faster than the second. Therefore:

The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than the second

Because the induced EMF is proportional to the induced current.

Where the induced EMF depends on the speed of the magnet according to the formula below

EMF = BVL

So, increase in speed of the magnet will cause more powerful induced current and emf

6 0
3 years ago
What is the name given to this group of elements?
Marianna [84]
Your answer would be A. Halogens

6 0
3 years ago
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