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Bogdan [553]
3 years ago
15

Why is a silver spoon a good conductor

Physics
2 answers:
KengaRu [80]3 years ago
7 0

sliver spoon is a good conducter because it easily heats up. like for example, you put a sliver spoon in a bowl of hot soup and you hold it up and touch the spoon, it's really hot.

dangina [55]3 years ago
4 0
Because it’s made of metal. And metal is a good conductor
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Which process is represented by the PV diagram shown below?
MrMuchimi

Answer: B. the isovolumetric process

Explanation:

In the graph given, the volume is constant throughout. It represents a constant volume process. Such processes are called the isovolumetric process or isochoric process.

<em>Hence, option B is the correct answer.</em>

Option A is incorrect because in an isobaric process, the pressure is constant.

Option C is incorrect because in an isothermal process, the temperature is constant.

Option D is incorrect because in an adiabatic process there is no heat transfer.

8 0
3 years ago
For a standard production car, the highest road-tested acceleration ever reported occurred in 1993, when a Ford RS200 Evolution
Ann [662]

Answer:

a = 8.06 m/s²

Explanation:

The acceleration of this car can be found using the first equation of motion:

v_f = v_i + at\\\\a = \frac{v_f-v_i}{t}

where,

a = acceleration = ?

vf = final speed = 26.8 m/s

vi = initial speed = 0 m/s

t = time = 3.323 s

Therefore,

a = \frac{26.8\ m/s-0\ m/s}{3.323\ s}

<u>a = 8.06 m/s²</u>

3 0
3 years ago
in a certain experiment, a radio transmitter emits sinusoidal electromagnetic waves of frequency 105.0 mhz in opposite direction
Romashka [77]

As a result, the hollow is 10.90 meters long and the distance between the nodal planes is 1.36 meters.

<h3>Explain electromagnetic waves.</h3>

The oscillations between an electric field and a magnetic field produce waves known as electromagnetic waves, or EM waves.

By definition, we understand that the frequency equals,

f = c/λ

where,

λ = wavelength

c= Speed of light

λ = 2L / n

While the wavelength is equal to,

Where,

L = Length

n = Number of antinodes/nodes

PART A) We know that the first component's wavelength is 110 MHz, so

λ = c/ f

λ = 3*10^8 / 11*10^6

λ = 1.36m

Therefore the distance between the nodal planes is 1.36m

PART B) For this part we need to find the Length through the number of nodes (8) and the wavelength, that is,

λ` = 2l /n

L = 8*2.72/ 2

L = 10.90m

Therefore the length of the cavity is 10.90m.

To know more about electromagnetic waves visit:-

brainly.com/question/3101711

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
Coulomb measured the deflection of sphere A when spheres A and B had equal charges and were a distance d apart. He then made the
sdas [7]

Answer:

The new distance is     d = 0.447 d₀

Explanation:

The electric out is given by Coulomb's Law

         F = k q₁ q₂ / r²

This electric force is in balance with tension.

We reduce the charge of sphere B to 1/5 of its initial value (q_{B}=q₂ = q₂ / 5) than new distance (d = n d₀)

dat

     q₁ = q_{A}

     q₂ = q_{B}

     r = d₀

In order for the deviation to maintain the electric force it should not change, so we apply the Coulomb equation for the two points

         F = k q₁ q₂ / d₀²

         F = k q₁ (q₂ / 5) / (n d₀)²

         .k q₁ q₂ / d₀² = q₁ q₂ / (5 n² d₀²)

          5 n² = 1

          n = √ 1/5

          n = 0.447

The new distance is

         d = 0.447 d₀

6 0
3 years ago
When the play button is pressed, a CD accelerates uniformly from rest to 450 rev/min in 3.0 revolutions. If the CD has a radius
Marina CMI [18]

To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the kinematic equations of angular motion.

Torque from the rotational movement is defined as

\tau = I\alpha

where

I = Moment of inertia \rightarrow \frac{1}{2}mr^2 For a disk

\alpha = Angular acceleration

The angular acceleration at the same time can be defined as function of angular velocity and angular displacement (Without considering time) through the expression:

2 \alpha \theta = \omega_f^2-\omega_i^2

Where

\omega_{f,i} = Final and Initial Angular velocity

\alpha = Angular acceleration

\theta = Angular displacement

Our values are given as

\omega_i = 0 rad/s

\omega_f = 450rev/min (\frac{1min}{60s})(\frac{2\pi rad}{1rev})

\omega_f = 47.12rad/s

\theta = 3 rev (\frac{2\pi rad}{1rev}) \rightarrow 6\pi rad

r = 7cm = 7*10^{-2}m

m = 17g = 17*10^{-3}kg

Using the expression of angular acceleration we can find the to then find the torque, that is,

2\alpha\theta=\omega_f^2-\omega_i^2

\alpha=\frac{\omega_f^2-\omega_i^2}{2\theta}

\alpha = \frac{47.12^2-0^2}{2*6\pi}

\alpha = 58.89rad/s^2

With the expression of the acceleration found it is now necessary to replace it on the torque equation and the respective moment of inertia for the disk, so

\tau = I\alpha

\tau = (\frac{1}{2}mr^2)\alpha

\tau = (\frac{1}{2}(17*10^{-3})(7*10^{-2})^2)(58.89)

\tau = 0.00245N\cdot m \approx 2.45*10^{-3}N\cdot m

Therefore the torque exerted on it is 2.45*10^{-3}N\cdot m

3 0
3 years ago
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