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tekilochka [14]
3 years ago
12

Why was the lack of preparedness of the Federal Emergency Management Agency in the Hurricane Katrina disaster so damaging for th

e George W. Bush administration? a. President Bush had vociferously denied that hurricanes of this size could ever reach the United States. b. The Bush administration had prided itself on its unique focus for homeland security. c. There was nothing unusual about this particular hurricane, but the city and state had not done anything to prepare the city’s population. d. As a native of Louisiana, he was expected to display particular care for New Orleans. e. President Bush had been the head of FEMA during his father’s presidency.
Engineering
1 answer:
kolbaska11 [484]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The Bush administration had prided itself on its unique focus for homeland security and combating terrorism, without adequate preparation for the disaster.

You might be interested in
A pitfall cited in Section 1.10 is expecting to improve the overall performance of a computer by improving only one aspect of th
Oxana [17]

Answer:

a) For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

b) For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

c) A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

Explanation:

From the info given we know that a computer running a program that requires 250 s, with 70 s spent executing FP instructions, 85 s executed L/S instructions and 40 s spent executing branch instructions.

Part 1

For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

Part 2

For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

And we can quantify the decrease using the relative change:

\% Change = \frac{5s}{55 s} *100 = 9.09\% of reduction

Part 3

A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

8 0
3 years ago
A steel bar is 150 mm square and has a hot-rolled finish. It will be used in a fully reversed bending application. Sut for the s
Xelga [282]

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

Given The bar is square and has a hot-rolled finish. The loading is fully reversed bending.

Tensile Strength

Sut: 600 MPa

Maximum temperature

Tmax: 500 °C

Bar side dimension

b: 150 mm

Alternating stress

σa: 100 MPa

Reliability

R: 0.999 Note 1.

Assumptions Infinite life is required and is obtainable since this ductile steel will have an endurance limit. A reliability factor of 99.9% will be used.

Solution See Excel file Ex06-01.xls.

1 Since no endurance-limit or fatigue strength information is given, we will estimate S'e based on the ultimate tensile strength using equation 6.5a.

S'e: 300 MPa = 0.5 * Sut

2 The loading is bending so the load factor from equation 6.7a is

Cload: 1

3 The part size is greater than the test specimen and the part is not round, so an equivalent diameter based on its 95% stressed area must be determined and used to find the size factor. For a rectangular section in nonrotating bending, the A95 area is defined in Figure 6-25c and the equivalent diameter is found from equation 6.7d

A95: 1125 mm2 = 0.05 * b * b Note 2.

dequiv: 121.2 mm = SQRT(A95val / 0.0766)

and the size factor is found for this equivalent diameter from equation 6.7b, to be

Csize: 0.747 = 1.189 * dequiv^-0.097

4 The surface factor is found from equation 6.7e and the data in Table 6-3 for the specified hot-rolled finish.

Table 6-3 constants

A: 57.7

b: -0.718 Note 3.

Csurf: 0.584 = Acoeff * Sut^bCoeff

5 The temperature factor is found from equation 6.7f :

Ctemp: 0.710 = 1 - 0.0058 * (Tmax - 450)

6 The reliability factor is taken from Table 6-4 for R = 0.999 and is

Creliab: 0.753

7 The corrected endurance limit Se can now be calculated from equation 6.6:

Se: 69.94 MPa = Cload * Csize * Csurf * Ctemp *

Creliab * Sprme

Let

Se: 70 MPa

8 To create the S-N diagram, we also need a value for the estimated strength Sm at 103 cycles based on equation 6.9 for bending loading.

Sm: 540 MPa = 0.9 * Sut

9 The estimated S-N diagram is shown in Figure 6-34 with the above values of Sm and Se. The expressions of the two lines are found from equations 6.10a through 6.10c assuming that Se begins at 106 cycles.

b: -0.2958 Note 4.

a: 4165.7

Plotting Sn as a function of N from equation 6.10a

N Sn (MPa)

1000 540 =aa*B73^bb

2000 440

4000 358

8000 292

16000 238

32000 194

64000 158

128000 129

256000 105

512000 85

1000000 70

FIGURE 6-34. S-N Diagram and Alternating Stress Line Showing Failure Point

10 The number of cycles of life for any alternating stress level can now be found from equation 6.10a by replacing σa for Sn.

At N = 103 cycles,

Sn3: 540 MPa = aa * 1000^bb

At N = 106 cycles,

Sn6: 70 MPa = aa * 1000000^bb

The figure above shows the intersection of the alternating stress line (σa = 100 MPa) with the failure line at N = 3.0 x 105 cycles.

8 0
3 years ago
Intravenous infusions are usually driven by gravity by hanging the bottle at a sufficient height to counteract the blood pressur
Bingel [31]

Answer:

(a) BP = 11.99 KPa

(b) h = 2 m

Explanation:

(a)

Since, the fluid pressure and blood pressure balance each other. Therefore:

BP = ρgh

where,

BP = Blood Pressure

ρ = density of fluid = 1020 kg/m³

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

h = height of fluid = 1.2 m

Therefore,

BP = (1020 kg/m³)(9.8 m/s²)(1.2 m)

<u>BP = 11995.2 Pa = 11.99 KPa</u>

(b)

Again using the equation:

P = ρgh

with data:

P = Gauge Pressure = 20 KPa = 20000 Pa

ρ = density of fluid = 1020 kg/m³

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

h = height of fluid = ?

Therefore,

20000 Pa = (1020 kg/m³)(9.8 m/s²)h

<u>h = 2 m</u>

7 0
3 years ago
All aspects of the Kirby-Bauer test are standardized to assure reliability. What might be the consequence of pouring the plates
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

it would affect the distance the antiantibodies diffuse from the disk

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
What is the magnetic force on a moving electric charge called
crimeas [40]
The magnetic force on a free moving charge is perpendicular to both the velocity of the charge and the magnetic field with direction given by the right hand rule. The force is given by the charge times the vector product of velocity and magnetic field.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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