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Hoochie [10]
3 years ago
14

How many dB greater than 4 Watts is 64 Watts?

Physics
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

64 Watts is 12dB greater than 4 Watts

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A pole-vaulter is nearly motionless as he clears the bar, set 4.2 m above the ground. He then falls onto a thick pad. The top of
Inessa05 [86]

initial height of the pole vaulter = 4.2 m

height of the pole vaulter just before it touch the pad = 80 cm

so the total displacement of pole vaulter just before he will touch the pad = 4.2 - 0.80 = 3.4 m

now by kinematics

v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2a d

v_f^2 - 0^2 - 2* 9.8*3.4

v_f^2 = 66.64

v_f = 8.16 m/s

now after this he will come to rest after compressing the pad by 50 cm

so again we can use kinematics to find its acceleration

v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2 a d

0 - 8.16^2 = 2*a*0.50

a = -66.64 m/s^2

so here its acceleration will be - 66.64 m/s^2

4 0
3 years ago
Two identical traveling waves, moving in the same direction, are out of phase by π/5.0 rad. What is the amplitude of the resulta
andreev551 [17]

Answer:

Therefore the amplitude of the resultant wave is =0.95 y_m

Explanation:

The equation of wave:

y=A sin (kx-ωt)

For wave 1:

y₁=A sin (kx-ωt) = y_{m}sin (kx-ωt)

For wave 2:

y₂=A sin (kx-ωt+Φ) = y_{m}sin (kx-ωt+Φ)

Where A= amplitude=y_m

The angular frequency \omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}

k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda} , \lambda= wave length.

t= time

T= Time period

\phi = phase difference =  \frac{\pi}{5}

The resultant wave will be

y = y₁ + y₂

 =y_m sin (kx-ωt) + y_m sin (kx-ωt+Φ)

 =y_m {sin (kx-ωt) + sin (kx-ωt+Φ)}

 =y_m\  sin(\frac{kx-\omega t +\phi + kx-\omega t }2)\ cos(\frac{kx-\omega t  +\phi -kx+\omega t}2)

 =y_m\  sin({kx-\omega t +\frac\phi 2)\ cos(\frac{\phi }2)

=y_m\ cos(\frac{\phi }2) sin({kx-\omega t +\frac\phi 2)

Therefore the amplitude of the resultant wave is

=y_m\ cos(\frac{\phi }2)

=y_m\ cos(\frac{\pi }{10})

=0.95 y_m

6 0
4 years ago
Amazon rectangular bar of low carbon steel A-36 is exposed to an axial strees of 150 MPa. What is the original length of the bar
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

1.8m

Explanation:

Let the Elastics of the steel ASTM-36 E = 200000 MPa

The strain of the bar when subjected to 150 MPa is

\epsilon = \frac{\sigma}{E} = \frac{150}{200000} = 0.00075

Therefore, if the bar elongates by 1.35 mm, then the original length L would be:

\epsilon = \frac{\Delta L}{L}

L = \frac{\Delta L}{\epsilon} = \frac{1.35}{0.00075} = 1800 mm or 1.8m

5 0
3 years ago
Answer ASAP plz this is hard for me
PIT_PIT [208]
I think it will be B
7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELPP<br> Look at the picture
denis23 [38]
Answer: It’s c
explaining: i guessed
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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