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nikitadnepr [17]
3 years ago
14

What energy comes from a rining bell

Physics
1 answer:
Harrizon [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Sound Energy

Sound Energy

Explanation:The vibrations produced by the ringing bell causes waves of pressure that travel or propagate through the medium that is air. Sound energy is a form of mechanical energy that is generally associated with the motion and position of the ringing bell.

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Which type of map would you most likely use to locate mineral deposits? A. topographic B. geologic C. satellite D. hazard
qwelly [4]
I think you would be using a topographic Map, So the answer should be A
3 0
3 years ago
Two long, parallel wires are attracted to each other by a force per unit length of 350 µN/m. One wire carries a current of 22.5
pishuonlain [190]

Answer

given,

force per unit length = 350 µN/m

current, I = 22.5 A

y = y = 0.420 m

\dfrac{F}{L}= \dfrac{KI_1I_2}{d}

I_2 = \dfrac{F}{L}\dfrac{d}{KI_1}

I_2 = 350\times 10^{-6}\times \dfrac{0.42}{2 \times 10^{-7}\times 22.5}

    I₂ = 32.67 A

distance where the magnetic field is zero

\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 32.67}{2\pi y_1}=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 22.5}{2\pi (0.42-y_1)}

y_1 = 0.248\ m

there the distance at which the magnetic field is zero in the two wire is at 0.248 m.

3 0
3 years ago
A cannon with a muzzle speed of 1 000 m/s is used to start an avalanche on a mountain slope. The target is 2 000 m from the cann
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

∅ = 89.44°

Explanation:

In situations like this air resistance are usually been neglected thereby making g= 9.81 m/s^{2}

Bring out the given parameters from the question:

Initial Velocity (V_{1}) = 1000 m/s

Target distance (d) = 2000 m

Target height (h) =  800 m

Projection angle ∅ = ?

Horizontal distance = V_{1x}tcos ∅     .......................... Equation 1

where V_{1x} = velocity in the X - direction

           t = Time taken

Vertical Distance = y = V_{1y} t - \frac{1}{2}gt^{2}        ................... Equation 2

Where   V_{1y} = Velocity in the Y- direction

              t  = Time taken

V_{1y} = V_{1}sin∅

Making time (t) subject of the formula in Equation 1

                    t = d/(V_{1x}cos ∅)

                      t = \frac{2000}{1000coso} = \frac{2}{cos0}  =    \frac{d}{cos o}             ...................Equation 3

substituting equation 3 into equation 2

Vertical Distance = d = V_{1y} \frac{d}{cos o} - \frac{1}{2}g\frac{2}{cos0}   ^{2}

                                  Vertical Distance = h = sin∅ \frac{d}{cos o} - \frac{1}{2}g\frac{2}{cos0}   ^{2}

  Vertical Distance = h = dtan∅   - \frac{1}{2}g\frac{2}{cos0}   ^{2}

  Applying geometry

                              \frac{1}{cos o} = tan^{2} o + 1

  Vertical Distance = h = d tan∅   - 2 g (tan^{2} o + 1)

               substituting the given parameters

               800 = 2000 tan ∅ - 2 (9.81)( tan^{2} o + 1)

              800 = 2000 tan ∅ - 19.6( tan^{2} o + 1)  Equation 4

Replacing tan ∅ = Q     .....................Equation 5

In order to get a quadratic equation that can be easily solve.

            800 = 2000 Q - 19.6Q^{2} + 19.6

Rearranging 19.6Q^{2} - 2000 Q + 780.4 = 0

                    Q_{1} = 101.6291

                      Q_{2} = 0.411

    Inserting the value of Q Into Equation 5

                 tan ∅ = 101.63    or tan ∅ = 0.4114

Taking the Tan inverse of each value of Q

                  ∅ = 89.44°     ∅ = 22.37°

             

4 0
3 years ago
A closely wound, circular coil with a diameter of 4.30 cm has 470 turns and carries a current of 0.460 A .
Nadusha1986 [10]

Hi there!

a)
Let's use Biot-Savart's law to derive an expression for the magnetic field produced by ONE loop.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

dB = Differential Magnetic field element

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

R = radius of loop (2.15 cm = 0.0215 m)

i = Current in loop (0.460 A)

For a circular coil, the radius vector and the differential length vector are ALWAYS perpendicular. So, for their cross-product, since sin(90) = 1, we can disregard it.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{r^2}

Now, let's write the integral, replacing 'dl' with 'ds' for an arc length:
B = \int \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{ids}{R^2}

Taking out constants from the integral:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int ds

Since we are integrating around an entire circle, we are integrating from 0 to 2π.

B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0 \, ds

Evaluate:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  (2\pi R- 0) = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}

Plugging in our givens to solve for the magnetic field strength of one loop:

B = \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (0.460)}{2(0.0215)} = 1.3443 \mu T

Multiply by the number of loops to find the total magnetic field:
B_T = N B = 0.00631 = \boxed{6.318 mT}

b)

Now, we have an additional component of the magnetic field. Let's use Biot-Savart's Law again:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

In this case, we cannot disregard the cross-product. Using the angle between the differential length and radius vector 'θ' (in the diagram), we can represent the cross-product as cosθ. However, this would make integrating difficult. Using a right triangle, we can use the angle formed at the top 'φ', and represent this as sinφ.  

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} sin\theta}{r^2}

Using the diagram, if 'z' is the point's height from the center:

r = \sqrt{z^2 + R^2 }\\\\sin\phi = \frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}}

Substituting this into our expression:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{(\sqrt{z^2 + R^2})^2} }(\frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}})\\\\dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{iRd\vec{l}}{(z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}} }

Now, the only thing that isn't constant is the differential length (replace with ds). We will integrate along the entire circle again:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0, ds

Evaluate:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} (2\pi R)\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Multiplying by the number of loops:
B_T= \frac{\mu_0 N iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Plug in the given values:
B_T= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (470) (0.460)(0.0215)^2}{2 ((0.095)^2 + (0.0215)^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \\\\ =  0.00006795 = \boxed{67.952 \mu T}

5 0
2 years ago
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A cup has a mass of 0.0650 kg and a
Roman55 [17]

Answer: 0.185

Explanation:

Trust bro

5 0
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