1 revolution of a circle = circumference of that circle.
<span>1 revolution of a circle with the diameter of 28 inches = </span><span><span>πd=28π</span><span>πd=28π</span></span><span> inches. Hence, x revolutions per second = </span><span><span>28πx</span><span>28πx</span></span><span> inches per second = </span><span><span>60∗28πx</span><span>60∗28πx</span></span><span> inches </span>per minute.
<span>Given that </span><span><span>60∗28πx=35πn</span><span>60∗28πx=35πn</span></span><span> --> </span><span><span>n=<span><span>60∗28πx</span><span>35π</span></span>=48x</span><span>n=<span><span>60∗28πx</span><span>35π</span></span>=48x</span></span><span>.</span>
Answer: 5:8
Step-by-step explanation:
By reducing both sides equally, the ending answer is 5:8
(There can be many answers to your question but the one i told you is the most reduced one)
Answer:
a
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that Lana received 18 ounces of candy and Tom received 4 times as much candy as Lana received, then the number of candy Tom received is given by 4(18) = 72.
Now, given that Tom divided his candy evenly into 9 piles. Then the number of ounces of candy in each of Tom's piles is given by:
72/9 = 8 ounces.
Answer:
5.25 dalors
Step-by-step explanation:
Callculate the problem
