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solong [7]
2 years ago
11

What is shown in the above figure?

Engineering
2 answers:
vlabodo [156]2 years ago
3 0
A. compression ring 1
motikmotik2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B. Oil control ring

Explanation:

I just took the test on PF

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Answer:

Microsoft is the correct answer

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Discuss importance of good communication system​
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Effective communication helps decision makers by gathering and providing the information to the right person on right time. Communication performs as a motivator to the employees by notifying the employees about the job task, process of carrying and how it could be done better.

7 0
2 years ago
Two mass streams of the same ideal gas are mixed in a steady-flow chamber while receiving energy by heat transfer from the surro
loris [4]

Answer:

(a)The final temperature of mixture is T₃ =m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T₂/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp

(b) The final volume is V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

(c) The volume flow rate at exit is V₃ =V₁ + V₂

Explanation:

Solution

Now

The system comprises of two inlets and on exit.

Mass flow rate enthalpy of fluid from inlet -1 be m₁ and h₁

Mass flow rate enthalpy of fluid from inlet -2 be m₂ and h₂

Mass flow rate enthalpy of fluid from  exit be m₃ and h₃

Mixing chambers do not include any kind of work (w = 0)

So, both  the kinetic and potential energies of the fluid streams are usually negligible (ke =0, pe =0)

(a) Applying the mass balance of mixing chamber, min = mout

Applying the energy balance of mixing chamber,

Ein = Eout

min hin =mout hout

miCpT₁ + m₂CpT₂ +Qin =m₃CpT₃

T₃ = miCpT₁/m₃CpT₃ + m₂CpT₂/m₃CpT₃ + Qin/m₃CpT₃ +

T₃ =m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp

The final temperature of mixture is T₃ =m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T₂/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp

(b) From the ideal gas equation,

v =RT/PT

v₃ = RT₃/P₃

The volume flow rate at the exit, V₃ =m₃v₃

V₃ = m₃ RT₃/P₃

Substituting the value of T₃, we have

V₃=m₃ R/P₃ (=m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T₂/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp)

V₃ =  R/P₃ (m₁T₁+ m₂T₂ + Qin/Cp)

Now

The mixing process occurs at constant pressure P₃=P₂=P₁.

Hence V₃ becomes:

V₃=m₁RT₁/P₁ +m₂RT₂/P₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

Therefore, the final volume is V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

(c) Now for an adiabatic mixing, Qin =0

Hence V₃ becomes:

V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + r * 0/P₃Cp

V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + 0

V₃ =V₁ + V₂

Therefore the volume flow rate at exit is V₃ =V₁ + V₂

8 0
3 years ago
A 10-mm steel drill rod was heat-treated and ground. The measured hardness was found to be 290 Brinell. Estimate the endurance s
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

the endurance strength  S_e = 421.24  MPa

Explanation:

From the given information; The objective is to estimate the endurance strength, Se, in MPa .

To do that; let's for see the expression that shows the relationship between the ultimate tensile strength and Brinell hardness number .

It is expressed as:

200 \leq H_B \leq 450

S_{ut} = 3.41 H_B

where;

H_B = Brinell hardness number

S_{ut} =  Ultimate tensile strength

From ;

S_{ut} = 3.41 H_B; replace 290 for H_B ; we have

S_{ut} = 3.41 (290)

S_{ut} = 988.9 MPa

We can see that the derived value for the ultimate tensile strength when the Brinell harness number = 290 is less than 1400 MPa ( i.e it is 988.9 MPa)

So; we can say

S_{ut} < 1400

The Endurance limit can be represented by the formula:

S_e ' = 0.5 S_{ut}

S_e ' = 0.5 (988.9)

S_e ' = 494.45 MPa

Using Table 6.2 for parameter for Marin Surface modification factor. The value for a and b are derived; which are :

a = 1.58

b =  -0.085

The value of the surface factor can be calculate by using the equation

k_a = aS^b_{ut}

K_a = 1.58 (988.9)^{-0.085

K_a = 0.8792

The formula that is used to determine the value of  k_b for the rotating shaft of size factor d = 10 mm is as follows:

k_b = 1.24d^{-0.107}

k_b = 1.24(10)^{-0.107}

k_b = 0.969

Finally; the the endurance strength, Se, in MPa if the rod is used in rotating bending is determined by using the expression;

S_e =k_ak_b S' _e

S_e= 0.8792×0.969×494.45

S_e = 421.24  MPa

Thus; the endurance strength  S_e = 421.24  MPa

8 0
3 years ago
One kilogram of water fills a 150-L rigid container at an initial pressure of 2 MPa. The container is then cooled to 40∘C. Deter
lukranit [14]

The pressure of water is 7.3851 kPa

<u>Explanation:</u>

Given data,

V = 150×10^{-3} m^{3}

m = 1 Kg

P_{1} = 2 MPa

T_{2}  = 40°C

The waters specific volume is calculated:

v_{1} = V/m

Here, the waters specific volume at initial condition is v_{1}, the containers volume is V, waters mass is m.

v_{1} = 150×10^{-3} m^{3}/1

v_{1} = 0.15 m^{3}/ Kg

The temperature from super heated water tables used in interpolation method between the lower and upper limit for the specific volume corresponds 0.15 m^{3}/ Kg and 0.13 m^{3}/ Kg.

T_{1}= 350+(400-350) \frac{0.15-0.13}{0.1522-0.1386}

T_{1} = 395.17°C

Hence, the initial temperature is 395.17°C.

The volume is constant in the rigid container.

v_{2} = v_{1}= 0.15 m^{3}/ Kg

In saturated water labels for T_{2}  = 40°C.

v_{f} = 0.001008 m^{3}/ Kg

v_{g} = 19.515 m^{3}/ Kg

The final state is two phase region v_{f} < v_{2} < v_{g}.

In saturated water labels for T_{2}  = 40°C.

P_{2} = P_{Sat} = 7.3851 kPa

P_{2} = 7.3851 kPa

7 0
3 years ago
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