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kicyunya [14]
3 years ago
14

Which statement is true regarding flexibility? A. joint's range of motion cannot be maintained with age. b.A joint's range of mo

tion will be lost if the joint is not used regularly. c.Flexibility decreases with age because muscle strength increases. d.Flexibility decreases at a rate predetermined at birth.
Physics
2 answers:
mariarad [96]3 years ago
7 0
The answer should be : <span>b.A joint's range of motion will be lost if the joint is not used regularly. 

Hope this helps !

Photon</span>
Alex777 [14]3 years ago
3 0
<span>the statement that is true regarding flexibility is : b. a joint's range of motion will be lost if the joint is not used regularly. Our body is like a machine. If we not constantly heat it up, our body will be more prone to injury. We can see that the old people who lived within the tribe in the middle of the mountain are far stronger than the one who lived in the city.</span>
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Una rueda que tiene 15 cm de radio, realiza 64 vueltas en 16 seg. Calcula: Periodo Frecuencia Velocidad angular Velocidad lineal
liraira [26]

Answer:

i) El período de la rueda es de 0,25 segundos.

ii) La frecuencia de la rueda es 4 Hertz

iii) La velocidad angular es aproximadamente 25.133

iv) La velocidad lineal es de aproximadamente 3,77 m / s

Explanation:

El radio de la rueda, r = 15 cm = 0,15 m

El número de vueltas que hace la rueda = 64 vueltas

El tiempo que tarda el volante en dar 64 vueltas = 16 segundos

i) El período = El tiempo que tarda la rueda en dar 1 vuelta

∴ El período de la rueda, T = 16 segundos/(64 vueltas) = 0,25 segundos

El período de la rueda, T = 0,25 segundos

ii) La frecuencia = El número de vueltas por segundo

∴ La frecuencia de la rueda, f = 64 vueltas /(16 segundos) = 4 Hertz

1 vuelta = 2 · π radianes

La frecuencia de la rueda, f = 4 Hertz

iii) Velocidad angular = La medida del ángulo girado por segundo

∴ La velocidad angular, ω = 64 × 2 × π/16 segundos ≈ 8 · π rad/segundos ≈ 25.133 rad/seg

La velocidad angular, ω ≈ 25.133

iv) La velocidad lineal, v = r × ω

∴ v = 0,15 m × 8 · π rad / segundos ≈ 3,77 m/s

La velocidad lineal, v ≈ 3.77 m/s

7 0
3 years ago
A water wave has a frequency of 2 Hertz and a wavelength of 5 cm. Calculate it speed
Llana [10]

Answer: 0.1 m/s

Explanation:

Use formula,

v = f * w where, v is speed, f is frequency and w is wavelength.

Now,

v = 2 * 5 * 10 ^ -2 ( Remember to convert all the units to SI units. Here 5 cm becomes 5 * 10 ^ -2 m. )

v = 0.1 m/s.

8 0
3 years ago
Estimate how far apart the rays of deepest red and deepest violet light are as they exit the bottom surface. assume nred = 1.57
Harlamova29_29 [7]
We begin by noting that the angle of incidence is the one that's taken with respect to the normal to the surface in question. In this case the angle of incidence is 30. The material is Flint Glass according to the original question. The refractive indez of air n1=1, the refractive index of red in flint glass is nred=1.57, finally for violet in the glass medium is nviolet=1.60. Snell's Law dictates:
n_1sin(\theta_1)=n_2sin(\theta_2)
Where \theta_2 differs for each wavelenght, that means violet and red will have different refractive indices in the glass.
In the second figure provided details are given on which are the angles in question, \Delta x is the distance between both rays.
\theta_{2red}=Asin(\frac{sin(30)}{1.57})\approx 18.5705
\theta_{2violet}=Asin(\frac{sin(30)}{1.60})\approx 18.21
At what distance d from the incidence normal will the beams land at the bottom?
For violet we have:
d_{violet}=h.tan(\theta_{2violet})\approx 0.0132m
For red we have:
d_{red}=h.tan(\theta_{2red})\approx 0.0134m
We finally have:
\Delta x=d_{red}-d_{violet}\approx2.8\times10^{-4}m


6 0
3 years ago
A mover loads a crate onto a truck bed 1.6m from the street using a ramp that is 4.6m long. What is a mechanical advantage?
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

Mechanical advantage = 2.875

Explanation:

Given:

A diagram is shown below for the above scenario.

Length of ramp (Effort arm) = 4.6 m

Height of truck bed ( Resistance length) = 1.6 m

Mechanical advantage (MA) is the ratio of effort arm and resistance length.

So, mechanical advantage is given as,

MA=\frac{\textrm{Effort arm}}{\textrm{Resistance length}}= \frac{4.6}{1.6}=2.875

6 0
2 years ago
Since the universe is infinite, the probability of events and reoccurrence is infinite. So that means that there is a chance, if
il63 [147K]

Answer:

That insane it might be true because  a planet sometimes quoted to be an Earth 2.0 or Earth's Cousin based on its characteristics; also known by its Kepler Object of Interest designation KOI-7016.01) is an exoplanet orbiting the Sun-like star Kepler-452 about 1,402 light-years (430 pc) from Earth in the constellation Cygnus.

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
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