Well, a curler uses heat to calm down friction so I am not sure
Given what we know, despite not having the figure attached to the question, we can still confirm that the magnitude for the acceleration of the dancer will be zero.
<h3>Why is the dancer's acceleration equal to zero?</h3>
This has to do with how the question clarifies the speed of the dancer. Though it does not give us an exact value, we are told that the speed is constant. This is an indicator that the acceleration is zero because with any other value for acceleration the speed <u>cannot remain</u> constant.
Therefore, given that any value for acceleration will increase or decrease the speed of the dancer, but we are told that the dancer's speed is constant throughout the trip, we can confirm that the magnitude for the acceleration of the dancer is zero.
To learn more about acceleration visit;
brainly.com/question/12134554?referrer=searchResults
So sweat<span> helps </span>cool<span> you </span>down<span> two ways. First, it makes </span>your skin<span> feel cooler when it's wet. And when it </span>evaporates<span> it removes some heat. But </span>sweat<span> will only </span>evaporato<span>in an environment where there isn't much water in the air.</span>
Answer:
Explanation:
Let the magnetic field be B = B₁i + B₂j + B₃k
Force = I ( L x B ) , I is current , L is length and B is magnetic field .
In the first case
force = - 2.3 j N
L = 2.5 i
puting the values in the equation above
- 2.3 j = 8 [ 2.5 i x ( B₁i + B₂j + B₃k )]
= - 20 B₃ j + 20 B₂ k
comparing LHS and RHS ,
20B₃ = 2.3
B₃ = .115
B₂ = 0
In the second case
L = 2.5 j
Force = I ( L x B )
2.3i−5.6k = 8 ( 2.5 j x (B₁i + B₂j + B₃k )
= - 20 B₁ k + 20B₃ i
2.3i−5.6k = - 20 B₁ k + 20B₃ i
B₃ = .115
B₁ = .28
So magnetic field B = .28 i + .115 B₃
Part A
x component of B = .28 T
Part B
y component of B = 0
Part C
z component of B = .115 T .
