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krek1111 [17]
3 years ago
9

You are listening to the radio when one of your favorite songs comes on, so you turn up the volume. If you managed to increase t

he sound intensity by
17.0 dB, by what factor did the intensity of the sound, in W/m2, increase?
The intensity of sound, in W/m2, increased by a factor of .
Physics
1 answer:
andrew-mc [135]3 years ago
5 0

To solve this problem we need to apply the corresponding sound intensity measured from the logarithmic scale. Since in the range of intensities that the human ear can detect without pain there are large differences in the number of figures used on a linear scale, it is usual to use a logarithmic scale. The unit most used in the logarithmic scale is the decibel yes described as

\beta_{dB} = 10log_{10} \frac{I}{I_0}

Where,

I = Acoustic intensity in linear scale

I_0 = Hearing threshold

The value in decibels is 17dB, then

17dB = 10log_{10} \frac{I}{I_0}

Using properties of logarithms we have,

\frac{17}{10} = log_{10} \frac{I}{I_0}

log_{10} \frac{I}{I_0} = 1.7

\frac{I}{I_0} = 10^{1.7}

\frac{I}{I_0} = 50.12 W/m^2

Therefore the factor that the intensity of the sound was 50.12W/m^2

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TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

The Moon does not fall towards Earth right now because Earth rotates itself. The energy from the Earth's own rotation around its axis is gradually tranferred into energy of the Moon's orbital motion. That's why the Earth's rotating speed decreases but the distance to the Moon increases.

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3 years ago
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Consider 3 polarizers. Polarizer 1 has a vertical transmission axis and polarizer 3 has a horizontal transmission axis. Taken to
kirill [66]

Answer:

Option D.) 0.09 I₀

Explanation:

The intensity, I, of a polarized light after passing through a polarizing filter is given by I = I_{0} cos^{2}  \theta

I_{0} = Original Intensity

\theta = Angle between the direction of polarization and the axis of filter

After passing through the first polarizer, the initial intensity, I_{o} is halved, i.e I_{1} = \frac{I_{0} }{2}

After passing through the second polarizer, the angle of polarization, θ = 30⁰

I_{2} = I_{1} cos^{2} \theta

I_{2} = \frac{I_{0} }{2} cos^{2} 30\\I_{2} =\frac{3}{8} I_{0} \\I_{2} = 0.375 I_{0}

After passing through the third polarizer, the angle of polarization, θ = 90⁰-30⁰ = 60⁰

I_{3} = I_{2} cos^{2} \theta

I_{3} = 0.375I_{0} cos^{2} 60

I_{2} =0.09 I_{0}

7 0
4 years ago
The radius of the aorta is «10 mm and the blood flowing through it has a speed of about 300 mm/s. A capillary has a radius of ab
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

(I). The effective cross sectional area of the capillaries is 0.188 m².

(II). The approximate number of capillaries is 3.74\times10^{9}

Explanation:

Given that,

Radius of aorta = 10 mm

Speed = 300 mm/s

Radius of capillary r=4\times10^{-3}\ mm

Speed of blood v=5\times10^{-4}\ m/s

(I). We need to calculate the effective cross sectional area of the capillaries

Using continuity equation

A_{1}v_{1}=A_{2}v_{2}

Where. v₁ = speed of blood in capillarity

A₂ = area of cross section of aorta

v₂ =speed of blood in aorta

Put the value into the formula

A_{1}=A_{2}\times\dfrac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}

A_{1}=\pi\times(10\times10^{-3})^2\times\dfrac{300\times10^{-3}}{5\times10^{-4}}

A_{1}=0.188\ m^2

(II). We need to calculate the approximate number of capillaries

Using formula of area of cross section

A_{1}=N\pi r_{c}^2

N=\dfrac{A_{1}}{\pi\times r_{c}^2}

Put the value into the formula

N=\dfrac{0.188}{\pi\times(4\times10^{-6})^2}

N=3.74\times10^{9}

Hence, (I). The effective cross sectional area of the capillaries is 0.188 m².

(II). The approximate number of capillaries is 3.74\times10^{9}

3 0
3 years ago
Sal jumps into the air with an initial velocity of 1.1 m/s. How high will he go before he comes to
sammy [17]
1.1 m/s hope this helps.
3 0
2 years ago
Two wheels with fixed hubs, each having a mass of 1kg , start from rest, and forces are applied: F1= 1 N to the first wheel and
irina [24]

Answer:

2N

Explanation:

m = m_1 = m_2 = 1 kg

The torques generated by tangential forces on the 2 wheels are

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T_2 = F_2R_2 = F_2*1 = F_2 Nm

According to Newton's 2nd law, the angular accelerations generated by these torque would be

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For the 2nd wheel to have the same angular acceleration, its force must be

\alpha_1 = \alpha_2

2 = F_2

F_2 = 2N

6 0
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