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SpyIntel [72]
3 years ago
5

A 2 eV electron encounters a barrier 5.0 eV high and width a. What is the probability b) 0.5 that it will tunnel through the bar

rier if the barrier width a is (a) 1.00 nm [5p nm 5pt]? Suggestion: use T as given in Lecture 9-10
Physics
1 answer:
denis23 [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The tunnel probability for 0.5 nm and 1.00 nm are  5.45\times10^{-4} and 7.74\times10^{-8} respectively.

Explanation:

Given that,

Energy E = 2 eV

Barrier V₀= 5.0 eV

Width = 1.00 nm

We need to calculate the value of \beta

Using formula of \beta

\beta=\sqrt{\dfrac{2m}{\dfrac{h}{2\pi}}(v_{0}-E)}

Put the value into the formula

\beta = \sqrt{\dfrac{2\times9.1\times10^{-31}}{(1.055\times10^{-34})^2}(5.0-2)\times1.6\times10^{-19}}

\beta=8.86\times10^{9}

(a). We need to calculate the tunnel probability for width 0.5 nm

Using formula of tunnel barrier

T=\dfrac{16E(V_{0}-E)}{V_{0}^2}e^{-2\beta a}

Put the value into the formula

T=\dfrac{16\times 2(5.0-2.0)}{5.0^2}e^{-2\times8.86\times10^{9}\times0.5\times10^{-9}}

T=5.45\times10^{-4}

(b). We need to calculate the tunnel probability for width 1.00 nm

T=\dfrac{16\times 2(5.0-2.0)}{5.0^2}e^{-2\times8.86\times10^{9}\times1.00\times10^{-9}}

T=7.74\times10^{-8}

Hence, The tunnel probability for 0.5 nm and 1.00 nm are  5.45\times10^{-4} and 7.74\times10^{-8} respectively.

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A 200 kg wood crate sits in the back of a truck. The coefficients of friction between the crate and the truck are ????s = 0.9 an
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Maximum acceleration of the truck is 5.25 m/s^2

Explanation:

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F_{s}=c_{s}*200*9.8*cos(20)\\F_{s}=0.9*200*9.8*0.94\\F_{s}=1657.62

1657.62 Newton is the friction.

So force against friction need to be at most 1657.62 N. Then equation will be:

F_{s}=F_{a}+F_{m}\\1657.62=200*9.8*sin(20)+200*a*cos(20)\\1657.62=670.36+187.94*a\\987.26=187.94*a\\a=5.25

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4 0
3 years ago
I NEED HELP!!!!! PLEASE ANSWER! FIRST CORRECT ANSWER WILL GET BRAINLIEST AND I WILL FOLLOW YOU!
Naily [24]

Average speed = (total distance) / (time to cover the distance)

We know:

    Average speed = 65 km/hr
    Total distance = 1,000 km 
    Time to cover it = (Driving Time) + 4 hours.

so we can write:

          65 km/hr  =  (1,000 km) / (Driving Time + 4hr)

          (I'm going to start calling the driving time 'DT'.
           Notice that DT is a number with the units of 'hours'.)

Multiply each side by    (DT + 4hr)

           (65 km/hr) (DT + 4hr)  =  1,000 km   

Eliminate parentheses on the left side:

           (65·DT km  +  260 km)  =  1,000 km

Subtract  260km  from each side:

              65·DT km          =    740 km

Divide each side by 65 :

                DT   =   11.38 hours .

DT (Driving Time) is the time you spent actually driving.
You had to cover the complete 1,000 km in that time.
So while you were driving, you had to do it at a speed of

                  1,000 km / 11.38 hrs  =  87.8 km/hr .
__________________________________________

As long as we're already totally bored by this question,
let's work on it some more, and check my answer:

... Driving for 11.38 hours at a speed of 87.8 km/hr, you cover

                     (11.38 hr) x (87.8 km/hr)  =  999.164 km  (close enough to 1,000) .

So far, so good.  The distance is taken care of.

With the 4-hour stop, the total trip takes 4 more hours = 15.38 hours.
So the average speed is

                     (1,000 km) / (15.38 hr)  =   65.02 km/hr

                                                                Close enough to 65 km/hr.  yay !

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