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3 years ago

What’s the difference between engineering stress and strain and true stress and strain

2 answers:

4 0

True strain and engineering strain? True stress is defined as the load divided by the cross-sectional area of the specimen at that instant and is a true indication of the internal pressures. ... Engineering stress is defined as the load divided by the initial cross-sectional area of the specimenAnswer:

Explanation:

svetoff [14.1K]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

he value of true stress or true strain is calculated from this instantaneous change in cross section area. ... Conversely, since true strain is calculated by integrating the strain over the entire test, it is larger than engineering strain for the same value of displacement.

Explanation:

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Two mass streams of the same ideal gas are mixed in a steady-flow chamber while receiving energy by heat transfer from the surro

loris [4]

Answer:

(a)The final temperature of mixture is T₃ =m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T₂/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp

(b) The final volume is V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

Explanation:

Solution

Now

The system comprises of two inlets and on exit.

Mass flow rate enthalpy of fluid from inlet -1 be m₁ and h₁

Mass flow rate enthalpy of fluid from inlet -2 be m₂ and h₂

Mass flow rate enthalpy of fluid from exit be m₃ and h₃

Mixing chambers do not include any kind of work (w = 0)

So, both the kinetic and potential energies of the fluid streams are usually negligible (ke =0, pe =0)

(a) Applying the mass balance of mixing chamber, min = mout

Applying the energy balance of mixing chamber,

Ein = Eout

min hin =mout hout

miCpT₁ + m₂CpT₂ +Qin =m₃CpT₃

T₃ = miCpT₁/m₃CpT₃ + m₂CpT₂/m₃CpT₃ + Qin/m₃CpT₃ +

T₃ =m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp

The final temperature of mixture is T₃ =m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T₂/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp

(b) From the ideal gas equation,

v =RT/PT

v₃ = RT₃/P₃

The volume flow rate at the exit, V₃ =m₃v₃

V₃ = m₃ RT₃/P₃

Substituting the value of T₃, we have

V₃=m₃ R/P₃ (=m₁T₁/m₃+ m₂T₂/m₃ + Qin/m₃Cp)

V₃ = R/P₃ (m₁T₁+ m₂T₂ + Qin/Cp)

Now

The mixing process occurs at constant pressure P₃=P₂=P₁.

Hence V₃ becomes:

V₃=m₁RT₁/P₁ +m₂RT₂/P₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

Therefore, the final volume is V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + RQin/P₃Cp

Hence V₃ becomes:

V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + r * 0/P₃Cp

V₃ =V₁ + V₂ + 0

V₃ =V₁ + V₂

Therefore the volume flow rate at exit is V₃ =V₁ + V₂

8 0

3 years ago

What are the 2 reasons an alignment should be done?

NikAS [45]

Answer:

because it will keep the tires in much better shape and it can improve the handling and keep your car from pulling to one side

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

A Service Schedule is...

VikaD [51]

Answer:

option c

Explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Explain the process of energy conversion by describing how energy was converted from the windmill design brief. Discuss the diff

cupoosta [38]

Answer:

Wind energy is converted to Mechanical energy which is then converted in to electrical energy

Explanation:

In a wind mill the following energy conversions take place

a) Wind energy is converted into Mechanical energy (rotation of rotor blades)

b) Mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy (by using electric motor)

This electrical energy is then used for transmission through electric lines.

6 0

2 years ago

What is the average linear (seepage) velocity of water in an aquifer with a hydraulic conductivity of 6.9 x 10-4 m/s and porosit

jeka94

Answer:

a. 0.28

Explanation:

Given that

porosity =30%

hydraulic gradient = 0.0014

hydraulic conductivity = 6.9 x 10⁻4 m/s

We know that average linear velocity given as

$v=\dfrac{K}{n_e}\dfrac{dh}{dl}$

$v=\dfrac{6.9\times 10^{-4}}{0.3}\times0.0014\ m/s$

$v=3.22\times 10^{-6}\ m/s$

The velocity in m/d ( 1 m/s =86400 m/d)

v= 0.27 m/d

So the nearest answer is 'a'.

a. 0.28

4 0

3 years ago