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tatiyna
3 years ago
10

Air enters the compressor of a cold air-standard Brayton cycle with regeneration and reheat at 100 kPa, 300 K, with a mass flow

rate of 6 kg/s. The compressor pressure ratio is 10, and the inlet temperature for each turbine stage is 1400 K. The pressure ratios across each turbine stage are equal. The turbine stages and compressor each have isentropic efficiencies of 80% and the regenerator effectiveness is 80%. For k= 1.4.
Calculate:
a. the thermal efficiency of the cycle.
b. the back work ratio.
c. the net power developed, in kW.
Engineering
1 answer:
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. 47.48%

b. 35.58%

c. 2957.715 KW

Explanation:

T_2 =T_1 + \dfrac{T_{2s} - T_1}{\eta _c}

T₁ = 300 K

\dfrac{T_{2s}}{T_1} = \left( \dfrac{P_{2}}{P_1} \right)^{\dfrac{k-1}{k} }

T_{2s} = 300 \times (10) ^{\dfrac{0.4}{1.4} }

T_{2s} = 579.21 K

T₂ = 300+ (579.21 - 300)/0.8 = 649.01 K

T₃ = T₂ + \epsilon _{regen}(T₅ - T₂)

T₄ = 1400 K

Given that the pressure ratios across each turbine stage are equal, we have;

\dfrac{T_{5s}}{T_4} = \left( \dfrac{P_{5}}{P_4} \right)^{\dfrac{k-1}{k} }

T_{5s} = 1400×\left( 1/\sqrt{10}  \right)^{\dfrac{0.4}{1.4} }  = 1007.6 K

T₅ = T₄ + (T_{5s} - T₄)/\eta _t = 1400 + (1007.6- 1400)/0.8 = 909.5 K

T₃ = T₂ + \epsilon _{regen}(T₅ - T₂)

T₃ = 649.01 + 0.8*(909.5 - 649.01 ) = 857.402 K

T₆ = 1400 K

\dfrac{T_{7s}}{T_6} = \left( \dfrac{P_{7}}{P_6} \right)^{\dfrac{k-1}{k} }

T_{7s} = 1400×\left( 1/\sqrt{10}  \right)^{\dfrac{0.4}{1.4} }   = 1007.6 K

T₇ = T₆ + (T_{7s} - T₆)/\eta _t = 1400 + (1007.6 - 1400)/0.8 = 909.5 K

a. W_{net \ out} = cp(T₆ -T₇) = 1.005 * (1400 - 909.5) = 492.9525 KJ/kg

Heat supplied is given by the relation

cp(T₄ - T₃) + cp(T₆ - T₅) = 1.005*((1400 - 857.402) + (1400 - 909.5)) = 1038.26349 kJ/kg

Thermal efficiency of the cycle = (Net work output)/(Heat supplied)

Thermal efficiency of the cycle = (492.9525 )/(1038.26349 ) =0.4748 = 47.48%

b. bwr = \dfrac{W_{c,in}}{W_{t,out}}

bwr = (T₂ -T₁)/[(T₄ - T₅) +(T₆ -T₇)]  = (649.01 - 300)/((1400 - 909.5) + (1400 - 909.5)) = 35.58%

c. Power = 6 kg *492.9525 KJ/kg  = 2957.715 KW

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The relation between true stress and true strain is given as:

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σ = true stress = 365 MPa

k = constant

ε = true strain = Change in Length/Original Length

ε = (61.8 - 54.8)/54.8 = 0.128

n = strain hardening exponent = 0.2

Therefore,

365 MPa = K (0.128)^0.2

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k = 550.62 MPa

Now, we have the following data:

σ = true stress = ?

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ε = true strain = Change in Length/Original Length

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13.9357 horse power

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Annealed copper

Given :

Width, b = 9 inches

Thickness, $h_0=2.2$ inches

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μ = 0.2, R = 14 inches, N = 150 rpm

For the maximum possible draft in one pass,

$\Delta h = H_0-h_f=\mu^2R$

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$h_f = 2.2 - 0.56$

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Roll strip contact length (L) = $\sqrt{R(h_0-h_f)}$

                                             $=\sqrt{14 \times 0.56}$

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Absolute value of true strain, $\epsilon_T$

$\epsilon_T=\ln \left(\frac{2.2}{1.64}\right) = 0.2937$

Average true stress, $\overline{\gamma}=\frac{K\sum_f}{1+n}= 31305.56$ Psi

Roll force, $L \times b \times \overline{\gamma} = 2.8 \times 9 \times 31305.56$

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For SI units,

Power = $\frac{2 \pi FLN}{60}$  

           $=\frac{2 \pi 788900\times 2.8\times 150}{60\times 44.25\times 12}$

           = 10399.81168 W

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6 0
2 years ago
(a) The reverse-saturation current of a pn junction diode is IS = 10−11 A. Determine the diode voltage to produce currents of (i
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

The equation used to solve a diode is

i_d = I_se^\frac{V_d}{V_T}-1

  • i_d is the current going through the diode
  • I_s is your saturation current
  • V_D is the voltage across your diode
  • V_T is the voltage of the diode at a certain room temperature. by default, you always use V_T=25.9mV for room temperature.

If you look at the equation, i_d = I_se^\frac{V_d}{V_T}-1, you'd notice that the e^\frac{V_d}{V_T} grow exponentially fast, so we can ignore the -1 in the equation because it's so small compared to the exponential.

i_d = I_se^\frac{V_d}{V_T}-1

i_d\approx I_se^\frac{V_d}{V_T}

Therefore, use i_d= I_se^\frac{V_d}{V_T} to solve your equation.

Rearrange your equation to solve for V_D.

V_D=V_Tln(\frac{i_D}{I_s})

a.)

i.)

You're given I_s=10^{-11}A

at i_d=10\mu A,     V_D=V_Tln(\frac{i_D}{I_s})=(25.9\cdot10^{-3})ln(\frac{10\cdot10^{-6}}{10\cdot10^{-11}})=.298V

at i_d=100\mu A,   V_D=V_Tln(\frac{i_D}{I_s})=(25.9\cdot10^{-3})ln(\frac{100\cdot10^{-6}}{10\cdot10^{-11}})=.358V

at i_d=1mA,      V_D=V_Tln(\frac{i_D}{I_s})=(25.9\cdot10^{-3})ln(\frac{1\cdot10^{-3}}{10\cdot10^{-11}})=.417V

<em>note: always use</em>  V_T=25.9mV

ii.)

Just repeat part (i) but change to I_s=-5\cdot10^{-12}A

b.)

same process as part A. You do the rest of the problem by yourself.

4 0
3 years ago
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