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Eddi Din [679]
4 years ago
15

Snoopy is inflated for the Macy’s Thanksgiving parade with 50,000 L of He at 25 oC and 1.2 atm. What is the percent decrease in

Snoopy’s volume if the temperature drops to 4 oC before the parade? Assume constant pressure.
Engineering
1 answer:
Dvinal [7]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D.V.= - 1.34 %

Explanation:

Given that

V₁=50,000 L

T₁=25⁰C = 273 + 25 K =298 K

The final temperature ,T₂= 25 - 4 ⁰C = 21 ⁰C

T₂ = 21 + 273 K= 294 K

We know that for constant pressure process

V_2=\dfrac{T_2}{T_1}\times V_1

V_2=\dfrac{294}{298}\times 50000\ L

V₂=49328.85 L

The percent decrease in the volume is given as

D.V.=\dfrac{49328.85-50000}{50000}\times 100

D.V.= - 1.34 %

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Water flows through a horizontal 60 mm diameter galvanized iron pipe at a rate of 0.02 m3/s. If the pressure drop is 135 kPa per
maksim [4K]

Answer:

pipe is old one with increased roughness

Explanation:

discharge is given as

V =\frac{Q}{A} = \frac{ 0.02}{\pi \4 \times (60\times 10^{-3})^2}

V = 7.07  m/s

from bernou;ii's theorem we have

\frac{p_1}{\gamma}  +\frac{V_1^2}{2g} + z_1 = \frac{p_2}{\gamma}  +\frac{V_2^2}{2g} + z_2 + h_l

as we know pipe is horizontal and with constant velocity so we have

\frac{P_1}{\gamma } + \frac{P_2 {\gamma } + \frac{flv^2}{2gD}

P_1 -P_2 = \frac{flv^2}{2gD} \times \gamma

135 \times 10^3 = \frac{f \times 10\times 7.07^2}{2\times 9.81 \times 60 \times 10^{-5}} \times 1000 \times 9.81

solving for friction factor f

f = 0.0324

fro galvanized iron pipe we have \epsilon  = 0.15 mm

\frac{\epsilon}{d} = \frac{0.15}{60} = 0.0025

reynold number is

Re =\frac{Vd}{\nu} = \frac{7.07 \times 60\times 10^{-3}}{1.12\times 10^{-6}}

Re = 378750

from moody chart

For Re = 378750 and \frac{\epsilon}{d} = 0.0025

f_{new} = 0.025

therefore new friction factor is less than old friction factoer hence pipe is not new one

now for Re = 378750 and f = 0.0324

from moody chart

we have \frac{\epsilon}{d} =0.006

\epsilon = 0.006 \times 60

\epsilon = 0.36 mm

thus pipe is old one with increased roughness

5 0
3 years ago
The rate of energy transfer by work is called power. a)-True b)-False
Pie

Answer:

Yes the statement is true.

Explanation:

Power is defined as the rate at which energy is transferred by an object on account of work done.

Mathematically

Power=\frac{dE}{dt}

An object that does work loses it's energy while an object on which work is done gains energy.

Power is often dependent on the type of energy transfer thus we have Electrical Power, Mechanical Power depending on the type of energy involved in the system.

Concept of power is important since it gives us a measure of how fast energy can be derived to given to a system.

5 0
4 years ago
In primary processing their are 3 different steps, what are the steps?
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

Primary processing involves cutting, cleaning, packaging, storage and refrigeration of raw foods to ensure that they are not spoilt before they reach the consumer.

8 0
3 years ago
Source 1 can supply energy at the rate of 11000 kJ/min at 310°C. A second Source 2 can supply energy at the rate of 110000 kJ/mi
VladimirAG [237]

Answer:

Source 2.

Explanation:

The efficiency of the ideal reversible heat engine is given by the Carnot's power cycle:

\eta_{th} = 1 - \frac{T_{L}}{T_{H}}

Where:

T_{L} - Temperature of the cold reservoir, in K.

T_{H} - Temperature of the hot reservoir, in K.

The thermal efficiencies are, respectively:

Source 1

\eta_{th} = 1 - \frac{311.15\,K}{583.15\,K}

\eta_{th} = 0.466 \,(46.6\,\%)

Source 2

\eta_{th} = 1 - \frac{311.15\,K}{338.15\,K}

\eta_{th} = 0.0798 \,(7.98\,\%)

The power produced by each device is presented below:

Source 1

\dot W = (0.466)\cdot (11000\,\frac{kJ}{min})\cdot (\frac{1\,min}{60\,s} )

\dot W = 85.433\,kW

Source 2

\dot W = (0.0798)\cdot (110000\,\frac{kJ}{min})\cdot (\frac{1\,min}{60\,s} )

\dot W = 146.3\,kW

The source 2 produces the largest amount of power.

8 0
3 years ago
Consider a cylinder of height h, diameter d, and wall thickness t pressurized to an internal pressure P_0 (gauge pressure, relat
Serggg [28]

Explanation:

Note: For equations refer the attached document!

The net upward pressure force per unit height p*D must be balanced by the downward tensile force per unit height 2T, a force that can also be expressed as a stress, σhoop, times area 2t. Equating and solving for σh gives:

 Eq 1

Similarly, the axial stress σaxial can be calculated by dividing the total force on the end of the can, pA=pπ(D/2)2 by the cross sectional area of the wall, πDt, giving:

Eq 2

For a flat sheet in biaxial tension, the strain in a given direction such as the ‘hoop’ tangential direction is given by the following constitutive relation - with Young’s modulus E and Poisson’s ratio ν:

 Eq 3

 

Finally, solving for unknown pressure as a function of hoop strain:

 Eq 4

 

Resistance of a conductor of length L, cross-sectional area A, and resistivity ρ is

 Eq 5

Consequently, a small differential change in ΔR/R can be expressed as

 Eq 6

Where ΔL/L is longitudinal strain ε, and ΔA/A is –2νε where ν is the Poisson’s ratio of the resistive material. Substitution and factoring out ε from the right hand side leaves

 Eq 7

Where Δρ/ρε can be considered nearly constant, and thus the parenthetical term effectively becomes a single constant, the gage factor, GF

 Eq 8

For Wheat stone bridge:

 Eq 9

Given that R1=R3=R4=Ro, and R2 (the strain gage) = Ro + ΔR, substituting into equation above:

Eq9

Substituting e with respective stress-strain relation

Eq 10

 

part b

Since, axial strain(1-2v) < hoop strain (2-v). V out axial < V out hoop.

Hence, dV hoop < dV axial.

part c  

Given data:

P = 253313 Pa

D = d + 2t = 0.09013 m

t = 65 um

GF = 2

E = 75 GPa

v = 0.33

Use the data above and compute Vout using Eq3

Eq 11  

Download docx
3 0
3 years ago
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