Working displayed in the picture below, the answer is -11 m s^-2
Mechanical advantage = ideal mechanical advantage x efficiency = 3.5 x 0.6 = 2.1
The mechanical advantage of the inclined plane is 2.1
Answer:
E) is described by all of these
Explanation:
The magnetic force on a charged particle is expressed as:
F = qv * B = qvBsinθ
Where,
q = charge on particle
θ = angle between the magnetic field and the particle velocity.
v = velocity of the particle
B = magnitude of field vector
From here, we could denote that magnetic force, F depends on charge on particle, velocity of particle, magnitude of field vector.
The magnetic force on a charged particle is at right angles to both the velocity of the particle. The magnetic force and magnetic field in a charged particle are perpendicular to each other, the right hand rule is used to determine the direction of force.
The correct option is E.
Yes that is correct. We know this because 4.00 x 10 4 Pa is constant. If you have 2.00×10−3m3 then you do the following: (2.00×10^−3)(4.00×10^<span> 4) = </span>8.00×10^−3. That is how you get your answer
