Answer:
0.149 s or 0.15 s
Explanation:
let initially ball is moving towards left hence initial velocity = - 28.62 m/s
final velocity as ball moves right = +20 m/s
force = rate of change in momentum
force = mass × change in velocity / time
or time = mass × change in velocity / force
time = 2× ( 20 -( -28.62)) / 652.36
time = 2× ( 20 +28.62)) / 652.36
time = 2× 48 .62/652.36
time = 0.149 s or 0.15 s
I believe it is A bit not completely sure
The mechanical advantage of the bicycle is 0.1.
<u>Explanation:</u>
A simple machine is a machine that produces the output if we give the required input, and so the output always depends on the input force. Sometimes machines can also reduce the input force to get the required output and the ratio of output to input force is called as the mechanical advantage.
MA =
Now we have the input force = 697 N
Output force = 93 N
So Mechanical advantage can be calculated by inserting those values as, MA =
= 0.1
So the mechanical advantage of the bicycle is 0.1.
Answer:
18.6012339739 A
Explanation:
= Vacuum permeability =
L = Length of wire = 55 cm
N = Number of turns = 4000
I = Current
Magnetic field is given by
The current necessary to produce this field is 18.6012339739 A
Let t be the time they both meet. When they meet they both have covered the distance between them.
Arthur with 3 m/s would have covered 3t m
Betty with 2 m/s would have covered 2t m
3t + 2t = 100
5t = 100
t = 100/5
t = 20 seconds.
Spot who is helplessly runing back and forth at 5 m/s would have done this for 20 seconds.
This distance covered by spot = 5m/s * 20s = 100m