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monitta
4 years ago
5

Assume that we have a BS with a 6-dB antenna gain and an MS with antenna gain of 2 dB, at heights 10 m and 1.5 m, respectively,

operating in an environment where the ground plane can be treated as perfectly conducting. The lengths of the two antennas are 0.5 m and 15 cm, respectively. The BS transmits with a maximum power of 40 W and the mobile with a power of 0.1 W. The center frequency of the links (duplex) are both at 900 MHz, even if in practice they are separated by a small duplex distance (frequency difference).(a) Assuming that holds, calculate how much received power is available at the output of the receive antenna (BS antenna and MS antenna, respectively), as a function of distance d?(b) Plot the received powers for all valid distances d holds and the far field condition of the antennas is fulfilled.

Engineering
1 answer:
Dmitrij [34]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

See attachment below

Explanation:

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A jar made of 3/16-inch-thick glass has an inside radius of 3.00 inches and a total height of 6.00 inches (including the bottom
swat32

Answer:

1. Volume of the glass shell (Vg) is simply volume of the empty part of the jar (Ve) subtracted from volume of the entire jar (Vj):

Vg = Vj - Ve

Volume is calculated as base (B) multiplied with height (h). Base of the jar is circle, so its surface is πr^2 (r being the radius).

However radius is different depending on the part of the jar; for empty part of the jar, inner radius is d = 3 in, for the whole jar it is inner radius plus thickness of the glass a = 3 + 3/16 = 3.1875 in.

We are also given height of the whole jar, h = 6 in, but height of the empty part is entire height minus thickness of the jar h' = 6 - 0.1875 = 5.8125 in.

Now, let's calculate:

Vj = πa^2 • h = 191.42 in^3

Ve = πd^2 • h' = 164.26 in^3

So, volume of the glass shell is Vj - Ve which is 27.16 in^3.

2. Mass of the glass jar is density of the glass multiplied with volume:

m = ρ • Vg

Density of the glass is given here in cubic feet so, first, we need to convert it to cubic inches, dividing it by 1728:

ρ = 165 lb/ft^3 / 1728 = 0.095 lb/in^3

So, mass of the jar is:

m = 0.095 lb/in^3 • 27.16 in^3 = 2.59 lb

5. To find weight and volume of the water displaced we first need to find how deep the jar sinks (H), because volume of the displaced water is equal to the volume of the jar submerged. Jar will sink until gravity force (pulling it down) and buoyancy force (pushing it up) become equal. Displaced water is πa^2 • H and the buoyancy is ρw • g • Vd (ρw is density of water which is 62.5 lb/ft^3 / 1728 = 0.036 lb/in^3, and Vd is displaced water).

So, buoyancy is:

B = ρw • g • πa^2 • H

We said that buoyancy must be equal to gravity:

B = m • g (m being mass of the jar). So:

ρw • g πa^2 • H = m • g

ρw • πa^2 • H = m

From this, we can find H:

H = m / ρw•πa^2

H = 2.25 inches

That means that the jar will sink 2.25 inches in the water.

3. Now, it's easy to find volume of displaced water. It's the same as the volume of the jar submerged:

Vd = πa^2 • H

Vd = 71.94 in^3

4. And finally, the weight of water is:

m = ρw • Vd

m = 0.036 lb/in^3 • 71.94 in^3

m = 2.59 lb

Of course, we see that the mass of the jar equals the mass of the displaced water. Taking this as a rule, this question could have been solved easier However I wanted to do it more detailed, to explain it more clearly

6 0
3 years ago
A tensile test was made on a tensile specimen, with a cylindrical gage section which had a diameter of 10 mm, and a length of 40
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

The answers are as follow:

a) 10 mm

b) 12.730 N/mm^{2}

c) 127.307 N/mm^{2}

d) 0.25

Explanation:

d1 = 10mm , L1 = 40 mm, L2 = 50 mm, reduction in area = 90% = 0.9

Force = F =1000 N

let us find initial area first, A1 = pi*r^{2} = 78.55 mm^{2}

using reduction in area formula : 0.9 = (A1 - A2 ) / A1

solving it will give,  A2 = 0.1 A1 = 7.855  mm^{2}

a) The specimen elongation is final length - initial length

50 - 40 = 10 mm

b) Engineering stress uses the original area for all stress calculations,

Engineering stress = force / original area  = F / A1 = 1000 / 78.55  

Engineering stress = 12.730 N / mm^{2}

c) True stress uses instantaneous area during stress calculations,

True fracture stress = force / final  area  = F / A2 = 1000 / 7.855

True Fracture stress = 127.30 N / mm^{2}

e) strain = change in length / original length

strain = 10 / 40  = 0.25

8 0
3 years ago
What does product integration refer to in an advanced manufacturing setting?
creativ13 [48]

Answer:

C!!

Explanation:

Combining all manufacturing processes to provide higher efficiency and fulfilling the requeriments.

6 0
4 years ago
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Answer:

Power required to drive the escalator shall be equal to the rate at which the energies of the persons is increased.

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As we infer from the above equation If the velocity of the escalator is doubled then the Power required will also be doubled and become 31.215kW

3 0
3 years ago
You are to design the control for an automatic candy vending machine. The candy bars inside the machine cost 25 cents, and the m
labwork [276]

Answer:

I believe that it is E. Write Verilog HDL models for the machine based on the state diagram in (a) and the D flip-flop sequential circuit that you implement in (b).

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3 years ago
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