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WARRIOR [948]
3 years ago
5

A reaction in a solution would proceed slowest when -

Physics
1 answer:
Zinaida [17]3 years ago
6 0

the answer is A *but I am not sure*

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When the play button is pressed, a CD accelerates uniformly from rest to 450 rev/min in 3.0 revolutions. If the CD has a radius
Marina CMI [18]

To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the kinematic equations of angular motion.

Torque from the rotational movement is defined as

\tau = I\alpha

where

I = Moment of inertia \rightarrow \frac{1}{2}mr^2 For a disk

\alpha = Angular acceleration

The angular acceleration at the same time can be defined as function of angular velocity and angular displacement (Without considering time) through the expression:

2 \alpha \theta = \omega_f^2-\omega_i^2

Where

\omega_{f,i} = Final and Initial Angular velocity

\alpha = Angular acceleration

\theta = Angular displacement

Our values are given as

\omega_i = 0 rad/s

\omega_f = 450rev/min (\frac{1min}{60s})(\frac{2\pi rad}{1rev})

\omega_f = 47.12rad/s

\theta = 3 rev (\frac{2\pi rad}{1rev}) \rightarrow 6\pi rad

r = 7cm = 7*10^{-2}m

m = 17g = 17*10^{-3}kg

Using the expression of angular acceleration we can find the to then find the torque, that is,

2\alpha\theta=\omega_f^2-\omega_i^2

\alpha=\frac{\omega_f^2-\omega_i^2}{2\theta}

\alpha = \frac{47.12^2-0^2}{2*6\pi}

\alpha = 58.89rad/s^2

With the expression of the acceleration found it is now necessary to replace it on the torque equation and the respective moment of inertia for the disk, so

\tau = I\alpha

\tau = (\frac{1}{2}mr^2)\alpha

\tau = (\frac{1}{2}(17*10^{-3})(7*10^{-2})^2)(58.89)

\tau = 0.00245N\cdot m \approx 2.45*10^{-3}N\cdot m

Therefore the torque exerted on it is 2.45*10^{-3}N\cdot m

3 0
3 years ago
The flywheel is rotating with an angular velocity ω0 = 2.37 rad/s at time t = 0 when a torque is applied to increase its angular
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

ω = 12.023 rad/s

α = 222.61 rad/s²

Explanation:

We are given;

ω0 = 2.37 rad/s, t = 0 sec

ω =?, t = 0.22 sec

α =?

θ = 57°

From formulas,

Tangential acceleration; a_t = rα

Normal acceleration; a_n = rω²

tan θ = a_t/a_n

Thus; tan θ = rα/rω² = α/ω²

tan θ = α/ω²

α = ω²tan θ

Now, α = dω/dt

So; dω/dt = ω²tan θ

Rearranging, we have;

dω/ω² = dt × tan θ

Integrating both sides, we have;

(ω, ω0)∫dω/ω² = (t, 0)∫dt × tan θ

This gives;

-1[(1/ω_o) - (1/ω)] = t(tan θ)

Thus;

ω = ω_o/(1 - (ω_o × t × tan θ))

While;

α = dω/dt = ((ω_o)²×tan θ)/(1 - (ω_o × t × tan θ))²

Thus, plugging in the relevant values;

ω = 2.37/(1 - (2.37 × 0.22 × tan 57))

ω = 12.023 rad/s

Also;

α = (2.37² × tan 57)/(1 - (2.37 × 0.22 × tan 57))²

α = 8.64926751525/0.03885408979 = 222.61 rad/s²

6 0
3 years ago
The energy stored per unit volume of the inductor is called the energy density of the magnetic field. Why?
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

yes because physics want that

7 0
2 years ago
Is any force exerted on the vertical sides of the loop that you used in the experiment and how does it affect the apparent mass?
lorasvet [3.4K]
2. How should employers respond to K to 12 graduates who apply for vacant positions in
3. What were the perceived disadvantages of K to 12 graduates pcompared to college students?
4. What factors could give K to 12 graduates an advantage in the labor market?
Discussion Questions
1.
What is the dilemma K to 12 graduates face when applying for a job?
their company? Pa help asap po
5 0
3 years ago
Find the Maclaurin series for f(x) using the definition of a Maclaurin series. [Assume that f has a power series expansion. Do n
jenyasd209 [6]

The statement about pointwise convergence follows because C is a complete metric space. If fn → f uniformly on S, then |fn(z) − fm(z)| ≤ |fn(z) − f(z)| + |f(z) − fm(z)|, hence {fn} is uniformly Cauchy. Conversely, if {fn} is uniformly Cauchy, it is pointwise Cauchy and therefore converges pointwise to a limit function f. If |fn(z)−fm(z)| ≤ ε for all n,m ≥ N and all z ∈ S, let m → ∞ to show that |fn(z)−f(z)|≤εforn≥N andallz∈S. Thusfn →f uniformlyonS.

2. This is immediate from (2.2.7).

3. We have f′(x) = (2/x3)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, and f′(0) = limh→0(1/h)e−1/h2 = 0. Since f(n)(x) is of the form pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, where pn is a polynomial, an induction argument shows that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n. If g is analytic on D(0,r) and g = f on (−r,r), then by (2.2.16), g(z) =

3 0
3 years ago
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