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3 years ago

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A loop of wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field. For what orientation of the loop is the magnetic flux a maximum? For what

orientation is the flux zero? Draw diagrams of these two situations. (Do this on paper. Your instructor may ask you to turn in these diagrams.)

1 answer:

andreyandreev [35.5K]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

The flux is calculated as φ=BAcosθ. The flux is thereforemaximum when the magnetic field vector is perpendicular to theplane of the loop. We may also deduce that the flux is zero whenthere is no component of the magnetic field that is perpendicularto the loop.

when angle is zero then flux is maximium because when angle zerocos is maximium

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You place a point charge q = -4.00 nC a distance of 9.00 cm from an infinitely long, thin wire that has linear charge density 3.

valentinak56 [21]

Answer:

$F=6\times 10^{-7}\ N$

Explanation:

Given:

quantity of point charge, $q=-4\times 10^{-9}\ C$

radial distance from the linear charge, $r=0.09\ m$

linear charge density, $\lambda=3\times 10^{-9}\ C.m^{-1}$

<u>We know that the electric field by the linear charge is given as:</u>

$E=\frac{\lambda}{2\pi.\epsilon_0.r}$

$E=\frac{1}{2}\times 9\times 10^9\times \frac{3\times10^{-9}}{0.09}$

$E=150\ N.C^{-1}$

<u>Now the force on the given charge can be given as:</u>

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4 years ago

The distance between two particles is 2 centimeters. If the distance is increased to 4 centimeters, the force will be ?

postnew [5]

Answer:

The new force is 1/4 of the previous force.

Explanation:

Given

$Initial\ Distance = 2cm$ ---- $r_1$

$New\ Distance = 4cm$ --- $r_2$

Required

Determine the new force

Let the two particles be q1 and q2.

The initial force F1 is:

$F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r_1^2}$ --- Coulomb's law

Substitute 2 for r1

$F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{2^2}$

$F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4}$

The new force (F2) is

$F_2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r_2^2}$

Substitute 4 for r2

$F_2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4^2}$

$F_2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4*4}$

$F_2 = \frac{1}{4}*\frac{kq_1q_2}{4}$

Substitute $F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4}$

$F_2 = \frac{1}{4}*F_1$

$F_2 = \frac{F_1}{4}$

The new force is 1/4 of the previous force.

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2 years ago

I’m not sure how to solve this

spayn [35]

Answer:

Option 10. 169.118 J/KgºC

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Change in temperature (ΔT) = 20 °C

Heat (Q) absorbed = 1.61 KJ

Mass of metal bar = 476 g

Specific heat capacity (C) of metal bar =?

Next, we shall convert 1.61 KJ to joule (J). This can be obtained as follow:

1 kJ = 1000 J

Therefore,

1.61 KJ = 1.61 KJ × 1000 J / 1 kJ

1.61 KJ = 1610 J

Next, we shall convert 476 g to Kg. This can be obtained as follow:

1000 g = 1 Kg

Therefore,

476 g = 476 g × 1 Kg / 1000 g

476 g = 0.476 Kg

Finally, we shall determine the specific heat capacity of the metal bar. This can be obtained as follow:

Change in temperature (ΔT) = 20 °C

Heat (Q) absorbed = 1610 J

Mass of metal bar = 0.476 Kg

Specific heat capacity (C) of metal bar =?

Q = MCΔT

1610 = 0.476 × C × 20

1610 = 9.52 × C

Divide both side by 9.52

C = 1610 / 9.52

C = 169.118 J/KgºC

Thus, the specific heat capacity of the metal bar is 169.118 J/KgºC

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Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

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Answer:

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2 years ago