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3 years ago

How is energy related to the change of state represented by the model?

Physics

2 answers:

Anton [14]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Atoms gained energy when they turn from solid to gas

Explanation:

Think about it if something is not moving it has no energy but if things are moving all over the place like a gas you say that it has a lot of energy.

Aleks04 [339]3 years ago

7 0

Atoms gain energy as a solid changes to a liquid. If Adams energy during a change of state, they pull together by attractive forces and become more organized.

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Tapping the surface of a pan of water generates 17.5 waves per second. If the wavelength of each wave is 45 cm, what is the spee

ElenaW [278]

Answer:

Speed of the wave is 7.87 m/s.

Explanation:

It is given that, tapping the surface of a pan of water generates 17.5 waves per second.

We know that the number of waves per second is called the frequency of a wave.

So, f = 17.5 Hz

Wavelength of each wave, $\lambda=45\ cm=0.45\ m$

Speed of the wave is given by :

$v=f\lambda$

$v=17.5\times 0.45$

v = 7.87 m/s

So, the speed of the wave is 7.87 m/s. Hence, this is the required solution.

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

A closely wound, circular coil with a diameter of 4.30 cm has 470 turns and carries a current of 0.460 A .

Nadusha1986 [10]

Hi there!

a)
Let's use Biot-Savart's law to derive an expression for the magnetic field produced by ONE loop.

$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}$

dB = Differential Magnetic field element

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

R = radius of loop (2.15 cm = 0.0215 m)

i = Current in loop (0.460 A)

For a circular coil, the radius vector and the differential length vector are ALWAYS perpendicular. So, for their cross-product, since sin(90) = 1, we can disregard it.

$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{r^2}$

Now, let's write the integral, replacing 'dl' with 'ds' for an arc length:
$B = \int \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{ids}{R^2}$

Taking out constants from the integral:
$B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2} \int ds$

Since we are integrating around an entire circle, we are integrating from 0 to 2π.

$B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0 \, ds$

Evaluate:
$B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2} (2\pi R- 0) = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}$

Plugging in our givens to solve for the magnetic field strength of one loop:

$B = \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (0.460)}{2(0.0215)} = 1.3443 \mu T$

Multiply by the number of loops to find the total magnetic field:
$B_T = N B = 0.00631 = \boxed{6.318 mT}$

Now, we have an additional component of the magnetic field. Let's use Biot-Savart's Law again:
$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}$

In this case, we cannot disregard the cross-product. Using the angle between the differential length and radius vector 'θ' (in the diagram), we can represent the cross-product as cosθ. However, this would make integrating difficult. Using a right triangle, we can use the angle formed at the top 'φ', and represent this as sinφ.

$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} sin\theta}{r^2}$

Using the diagram, if 'z' is the point's height from the center:

$r = \sqrt{z^2 + R^2 }\\\\sin\phi = \frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}}$

Substituting this into our expression:
$dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{(\sqrt{z^2 + R^2})^2} }(\frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}})\\\\dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{iRd\vec{l}}{(z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}} }$

Now, the only thing that isn't constant is the differential length (replace with ds). We will integrate along the entire circle again:
$B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0, ds$

Evaluate:
$B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} (2\pi R)\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}$

Multiplying by the number of loops:
$B_T= \frac{\mu_0 N iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}$

Plug in the given values:
$B_T= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (470) (0.460)(0.0215)^2}{2 ((0.095)^2 + (0.0215)^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \\\\ = 0.00006795 = \boxed{67.952 \mu T}$

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2 years ago

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