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Harlamova29_29 [7]
3 years ago
10

Why are metals so much better at conducting than other solids

Physics
1 answer:
Over [174]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Metals are by far better conductors of electricity than most solids because individual atoms in a metal form a matrix which their outer electrons can move freely. These atoms form a "sea" of electrons that surrounds the positively charged atomic nuclei of the interacting metal ions.

Solids are usually rigid substances with their atoms in a fixed place unable to move freely.

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Read 2 more answers
X rays of wavelength 0.0169 nm are directed in the positive direction of an x axis onto a target containing loosely bound electr
mamaluj [8]

Answer:

a) 4.04*10^-12m

b) 0.0209nm

c) 0.253MeV

Explanation:

The formula for Compton's scattering is given by:

\Delta \lambda=\lambda_f-\lambda_i=\frac{h}{m_oc}(1-cos\theta)

where h is the Planck's constant, m is the mass of the electron and c is the speed of light.

a) by replacing in the formula you obtain the Compton shift:

\Delta \lambda=\frac{6.62*10^{-34}Js}{(9.1*10^{-31}kg)(3*10^8m/s)}(1-cos132\°)=4.04*10^{-12}m

b) The change in photon energy is given by:

\Delta E=E_f-E_i=h\frac{c}{\lambda_f}-h\frac{c}{\lambda_i}=hc(\frac{1}{\lambda_f}-\frac{1}{\lambda_i})\\\\\lambda_f=4.04*10^{-12}m +\lambda_i=4.04*10^{-12}m+(0.0169*10^{-9}m)=2.09*10^{-11}m=0.0209nm

c) The electron Compton wavelength is 2.43 × 10-12 m. Hence you can use the Broglie's relation to compute the momentum of the electron and then the kinetic energy.

P=\frac{h}{\lambda_e}=\frac{6.62*10^{-34}Js}{2.43*10^{-12}m}=2.72*10^{-22}kgm\\

E_e=\frac{p^2}{2m_e}=\frac{(2.72*10^{-22}kgm)^2}{2(9.1*10^{-31}kg)}=4.06*10^{-14}J\\\\1J=6.242*10^{18}eV\\\\E_e=4.06*10^{-14}(6.242*10^{18}eV)=0.253MeV

5 0
4 years ago
In the picture of the atom above, what subatomic particle does the letter A represent?
ra1l [238]

Answer:

Electron

Explanation:

In the picture, the letter A is pointing to an electron.

4 0
3 years ago
A uniform ladder 5.0 m long rests against a frictionless, vertical wall with its lower end 3.0 m from the wall. The ladder weigh
dem82 [27]

Answer:

Explanation:

a )

Reaction force of the ground

R = mg

= 160 N

Maximum friction force possible

= μ x R

= μ x 160

= .4 x 160

= 64 N .

b )

 160 N will act at middle point . 740N will act at distance of 3 / 5 m from the wall ,

Taking moment about top point of ladder

160 x 1.5 + 740 x 3/5 + f x 4 = 900 x 3

240 + 444 + 4f = 2700

f = 504 N

c )

Let x be the required distance.  

Taking moment about top point of ladder

160 x 1.5 + 740 x 3 x / 5 + .4 x 900 x 4  = 900 x 3  ( .4 x 900 is the maximum friction possible )

240 + 444 x + 1440  = 2700

x = 2.3  m

so man can go upto 2.3 at which maximum friction acts .

8 0
4 years ago
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