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jeka57 [31]
3 years ago
13

Based on the law of conservation of energy, how can we reasonably improve a machine’s ability to do work?

Physics
2 answers:
marshall27 [118]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Reduce the friction between its moving parts.

Explanation:

Sholpan [36]3 years ago
6 0
You will have to redefine the machine's boundaries.
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my choice1A child pushes a toy truck up an inclined plane. The lifting force is...Select one:ut ofO a. the weight of the truck.O
mash [69]

When pushing a toy truck up an inclined plane, the force that makes the truck goes up is the force that the child uses to push the truck. (The force that pushes

Therefore the correct option is C.

4 0
1 year ago
Calculate the final velocity right after a 117 kg rugby player who is initially running at 7.45 m/s collides head‑on with a padd
Free_Kalibri [48]

Answer:

v_f = 0.87 m/s

Explanation:

We are given;

F_avg = -17700 N (negative because it's backward)

m = 117 kg

Δt = 5.50 × 10^(−2) s

v_i = 7.45 m/s

Now, formula for impulse is given by;

I = F•Δt = - 17700 x 5.50 × 10^(−2) = - 973.5 kg.m/s

From impulse momentum theory, we know that;

Change in momentum of particle is equal to impulse.

Thus,

Δp = I = m•v_f - m•v_i

Thus,

-973.5= 117(v_f - 7.45)

Thus,

-973.5/117 = (v_f - 7.45)

-8.3205 + 7.45 = v_f

v_f = - 0.87 m/s

We'll take absolute value as;

v_f = 0.87 m/s

5 0
3 years ago
Ignoring air resistance and the little friction from the plastic tube, the magnet was a freely-falling object in each trial. If
horsena [70]

Answer:

emf will also be 10 times less as compared to when it has fallen 40 \mathrm{m}

Explanation:

We know, from faraday's law-

e m f=-N \frac{\Delta \Phi}{\Delta T}

and \Phi=B . A

So, as the height increases the velocity with which it will cross the ring will also increase. (v=\sqrt{2 g h})

Given

\mathrm{V} 1(\text { Speed at } 40 \mathrm{m})=2 \mathrm{x} \mathrm{V} 2(\text { speed at } 10 \mathrm{m})

\sqrt{2 g h_{2}}=2 \times \sqrt{2 g h_{1}}=28.28 \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}

Now, from 40 \mathrm{cm}

V_{3}=\sqrt{2 g h_{3}}=\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 0.4}=2.82 \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}

From equation a and b we see that velocity when dropped from 40 \mathrm{m} is 10 times greater when height is 40 \mathrm{cm} so, emf will also be 10 times less as compared to when it has fallen 40 \mathrm{m}

4 0
3 years ago
Please see the picture​
Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

t.f. are you sure that's english? it looks like not a real thing

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
A 120 g, 8.0-cm-diameter gyroscope is spun at 1000 rpm and allowed to precess. What is the precession period?
dolphi86 [110]

To solve this problem we will derive the expression of the precession period from the moment of inertia of the given object. We will convert the units that are not in SI, and finally we will find the precession period with the variables found. Let's start defining the moment of inertia.

I = MR^2

Here,

M = Mass

R = Radius of the hoop

The precession frequency is given as

\Omega = \frac{Mgd}{I\omega}

Here,

M = Mass

g= Acceleration due to gravity

d = Distance of center of mass from pivot

I = Moment of inertia

\omega= Angular velocity

Replacing the value for moment of inertia

\Omega= \frac{MgR}{MR^2 \omega}

\Omega = \frac{g}{R\omega}

The value for our angular velocity is not in SI, then

\omega = 1000rpm (\frac{2\pi rad}{1 rev})(\frac{1min}{60s})

\omega = 104.7rad/s

Replacing our values we have that

\Omega = \frac{9.8m/s^2}{(8*10^{-2}m)(104.7rad)}

\Omega = 1.17rad/s

The precession frequency is

\Omega = \frac{2\pi rad}{T}

T = \frac{2\pi rad}{\Omega}

T = \frac{2\pi}{1.17}

T = 5.4 s

Therefore the precession period is 5.4s

7 0
2 years ago
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