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Fantom [35]
3 years ago
11

The 8.00-cm long second hand on a watch rotates smoothly.

Physics
1 answer:
dolphi86 [110]3 years ago
4 0
The watch hand covers an angular displacement of 2π radians in 60 seconds.

ω = 2π/60
ω = 0.1 rad/s

v = ωr
v = 0.1 x 0.08
v = 8 x 10⁻³ m/s
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A. How does doubling the height of the cylinder affect its GPE?
vampirchik [111]

The answer would be:

Doubling the height will increase the amount of Joules produced.


8 0
3 years ago
Why isn't Coulomb's law valid for dielectric objects, even if they are spherically symmetrical?
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

Explanation:

The "traditional" form of Coulomb's law, explicitly the force between two point charges. To establish a similar relationship, you can use the integral form for a continuous charge distribution and calculate the field strength at a given point.

In the case of moving charges, we are in presence of a current, which generates magnetic effects that in turn exert force on moving charges, therefore, no longer can consider only the electrostatic force.

4 0
3 years ago
If the strength of the magnetic field at A is 200 units and the strength of the magnetic field at B is 50 units, what is the dis
Whitepunk [10]
A is the answer!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
5 0
3 years ago
The question is in the picture
Sedbober [7]

Answer:

e) 120m/s

Explanation:

When the ball reaches its highest point, its velocity becomes zero, meaning

v_0-gt = 0.

where v_0 is the initial velocity.

Solving for t we get

t = \dfrac{v_0}{g}

which is the time it takes the ball to reach the highest point.

Now, after the ball has reached its highest point, it turns around and falls downwards. After time t_0 since it had reached the highest point, the ball has traveled downwards and the velocity v_f it has gained is

v_f = gt_0,

and we are told that this is twice the initial velocity v_0; therefore,

v_f = 2v_0  = gt_0

which gives

t_0 = \dfrac{2v_0}{g}.

Thus, the total time taken to reach velocity 2v_0 is

t_{tot} = t+t_0 = \dfrac{v_0}{g}+\dfrac{2v_0}{g}

t_{tot} = \dfrac{3v_0}{g}.

This t_{tot}, we are told, is 36 seconds; therefore,

36= \dfrac{3v_0}{g},

and solving for v_0 we get:

v_0 = \dfrac{36g}{3}

v_0 = \dfrac{36s(10m/s^2)}{3}

\boxed{v_0 = 120m/s}

which from the options given is choice e.

7 0
3 years ago
Example 3 :
kherson [118]

The friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 × 10^8 respectively. Also, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 × 10^8 respectively.

<h3>How to determine the friction factor</h3>

Using the formula

μ = viscosity = 0. 06 Pas

d =  diameter = 120mm = 0. 12m

V =  velocity = 1m/s and 3m/s

ρ = density = 0.9

a. Velocity = 1m/s

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12* 1* 0. 9}

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 108}

friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 55

friction factor = 0. 289

b. When V = 3mls

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12 * 3* 0. 9}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 324}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 185

Friction factor = 0.096

Loss When V = 1m/s

Head loss/ length = friction factor × 1/ 2g × velocity^2/ diameter

Head loss = 0. 289 × \frac{1}{2*6. 6743 * 10^-11} × \frac{1^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss =  1. 80 × 10^8

Head loss When V = 3m/s

Head loss = 0. 096 × \frac{1}{1. 334 *10^-10} × \frac{3^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss = 5. 3× 10^8

Thus, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 ×10^8 respectively also, the friction factor and head loss  when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 ×10^8 respectively.

Learn more about friction here:

brainly.com/question/24338873

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
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