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Elanso [62]
3 years ago
15

A dog allergy test for people a 98% accuracy rate.Only 1% of the population has an allergy to dogs(actually it is much smaller t

han that!). Use a group of 100,000 people who’ve taken this test and the information provided to complete a table and answer the following question:
If you tested negative,what is the probability you do not have a dog allergy?
(Express your answer as decimals rounded to four decimal places.)
Mathematics
1 answer:
algol [13]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It is 0.9990

As is 0.0010 as four decimal places. for those that do have which means the same as a negative probability that you don't but reaffirms the situation so inverse of 0.0010 is needed to be 0.9990. so when added together they can become 100% = 1 whole as a probability that both options equal together 1.

When questions ask it negatively using words like don't, haven't, didn't etc. etc.

This question asks for such probability which is similar to percentage in scale for those that do have an allergy.

If the question asked the probability you do have a non allergy the opposite effect happens and we inverse the answer to 99%

But because it asks negatively that you dont have we keep the establishing number of the actual allergy finding because its the same as if you don't.

1% of 100,000 = 1000

1000/100000 = 1/1000

1/1000 = 0.001

Step-by-step explanation:

Once you find 1/1000 is answer to turn numbers into decimals remember the rule 1 = 100

So if 1 = 100

and we want 1/100

1/100 will equal and simplify into 0.01

Where 1/1000 will equal and simplify into 0.001 as the number 100 is extended another digit so would the decimal.

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Answer:

-20x + 15

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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Convert 1 cal/(m^2 * sec * °C) into BTU/(ft^2 * hr * °F)
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=0.03926\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

Step-by-step explanation:

To find : Convert 1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C} into \frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

Solution :

We convert units one by one,

1\text{ m}^2=10.7639\text{ ft}^2

1\text{ sec}=\frac{1}{3600}\text{ hour}

1\text{ cal}=0.003968\text{ BTU}

Converting temperature unit,

^\circ C\times \frac{9}{5}+32=^\circ F

1^\circ C\times \frac{9}{5}+32=33.8^\circ F

So, 1^\circ C=33.8^\circ F

Substitute all the values in the unit conversion,

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=\frac{0.003968}{10.7639\times \frac{1}{3600}\times 33.8}\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=\frac{0.003968}{0.101061}\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=0.03926\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

Therefore, The conversion of unit is 1\ \frac{\text{cal}}{m^2\times sec\times ^\circ C}=0.03926\frac{\text{BTU}}{ft^2\times hr\times ^\circ F}

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If I chose a number uniformly from the integers from 1 to 25, calculate the conditional probability that the number is a multipl
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Answer:

<h2>1/7</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

If I choose a number from the integers 1 to 25, the total number of integers I can pick is the total outcome which is 25. n(U) = 25

Let the probability that the number chosen at random is a multiple of  6 be P(A) and the probability that the number chosen at random is is larger than 18 be P(B)

P(A) = P(multiple of 6)

P(B) = P(number larger than 18)

A = {6, 12, 18, 24}

B = {19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25}

The conditional probability that the number is a multiple of 6 (including 6) given that it is larger than 18 is expressed as P(A|B).

P(A|B) = P(A∩B)/P(B)

Since probability = expected outcome/total outcome

A∩B = {24}

n(A∩B) = 1

P(A∩B) = n(A∩B)/n(U)

P(A∩B) = 1/25

Given B = {19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25}.

n(B) = 7

p(B) = n(B)/n(U)

p(B) = 7/25

Since P(A|B) = P(A∩B)/P(B)

P(A|B) = (1/25)/(7/24)

P(A|B) = 1/25*25/7

P(A|B) = 1/7

<em></em>

<em>Hence the conditional probability that the number is a multiple of 6 (including 6) given that it is larger than 18 is 1/7</em>

7 0
3 years ago
What is the slope of the line that passes through the points (-9, -8)((−15,−16)? Write your answer in simplest form.
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Let,

point A( x₁ , y₁) ≡ ( -9 ,-8)

point B( x₂ , y₂ )≡ (-15 ,-16)

To Find:  

Slope = ?

Solution:

Slope of Line Segment AB is given as

Slope(AB)=\dfrac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }

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Therefore the slope of the line that passes through the points (-9, -8),(−15,−16) is

Slope(AB)=\dfrac{4}{3}

4 0
3 years ago
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