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Shalnov [3]
3 years ago
6

How can you use tweezers to separate a mixture

Physics
2 answers:
drek231 [11]3 years ago
5 0
Hi, this sounds like a chemistry question:
If you wanted to separate sand from iron fillings for example, using tweezers would be a great tool to do this, depending on the size of the iron fillings.
Sergeeva-Olga [200]3 years ago
3 0
It depends on the mixture that you are separating
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1.Convert 340 cm into m *(answer=0.34m)
Nataly [62]

Answer:

<em>1</em><em>.</em><em>for </em><em>the </em><em>first </em><em>one </em><em>100c</em><em>e</em><em>n</em><em>t</em><em>i</em><em>m</em><em>e</em><em>t</em><em>e</em><em>r</em><em>s</em><em> </em><em>make </em><em>1</em><em> </em><em>meter </em><em>therefore</em>

<em>100c</em><em>m</em><em>-</em><em>1</em><em>m</em>

<em>3</em><em>4</em><em>0</em><em>c</em><em>m</em><em>-</em><em>x</em>

<em>3</em><em>4</em><em>0</em><em>/</em><em>100</em>

<em>=</em><em>3</em><em>.</em><em>4</em>

<em>the </em><em>answer </em><em>is </em><em>supposed</em><em> to</em><em> be</em><em> </em><em>3</em><em>.</em><em>4</em><em>,</em><em> maybe</em><em> </em><em>there's</em><em> </em><em>a </em><em>mistake</em><em> </em><em>with </em><em>the </em><em>question</em><em> </em><em>or </em><em>the </em><em>answer</em>

<em>2</em><em>.</em><em>t</em><em>h</em><em>e</em><em> </em><em>weight</em><em> </em><em>of </em><em>a </em><em>body </em><em>is </em><em>given </em><em>by </em><em>the </em><em>formula</em>

<em>mass×</em><em>g</em><em>r</em><em>a</em><em>v</em><em>i</em><em>t</em><em>y</em><em>,</em><em>in </em><em>this </em><em>case </em><em>the </em><em>mass </em><em>is </em><em>7</em><em>5</em><em>k</em><em>g</em><em> </em><em>and </em><em>the </em><em>gravity </em><em>is </em><em>9</em><em>.</em><em>8</em>

<em>weight</em><em>=</em><em>7</em><em>5</em><em>×</em><em>9</em><em>.</em><em>8</em>

<em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em>=</em><em>7</em><em>3</em><em>5</em><em>N</em>

<em>3</em><em>.</em><em>f</em><em>o</em><em>r</em><em> </em><em>this </em><em>one </em><em>the </em><em>mass </em><em>of </em><em>a </em><em>body </em><em>is </em><em>given</em><em> by</em><em> the</em><em> formula</em>

<em>mass=</em><em>weight/</em><em>gravity</em>

<em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em>=</em><em>4</em><em>2</em><em>0</em><em>/</em><em>9</em><em>.</em><em>8</em>

<em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em>=</em><em>4</em><em>2</em><em>.</em><em>8</em><em>k</em><em>g</em>

<em>I </em><em>hope</em><em> this</em><em> helps</em>

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3 years ago
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5 0
3 years ago
Is there air resistance in space?........HELP!!!!!
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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two wires each carry 10.0 A of current (in opposite directions) and are 2.50 mm apart. What is the magnetic field 37.0 cm away a
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

see answer below

Explanation:

Before we do any kind of calculation, we need to convert the proper units of the exercise. All the units of distance must be in meters, so, let's change distance of the wire, and the magnetic field to meters:

Separation between the wires are 2.5 mm:

2.5 mm * (1 m / 1000 mm) = 0.0025 m

The distance of P from the bottom of the wires is 37 cm:

37 cm * (1 m/100 cm) = 0.37 m

The distance of P from the top of the wires is just the sum of the two distances:

R = 0.37 + 0.0025 = 0.3725 m

Now that we have the distance, we can determine the magnetic field, using the following expression:

B = B(bottom) - B(top)   or just B₂ - B₁

And B = μ₀ I / 2πR

Replacing in the above expression we have:

B = μ₀ I / 2π ( 1/R₂ - 1/R₁)

Now we can determine the magnetic field:

B = (4πx10⁻⁷ * 10 / 2π) (1/0.37 - 1/0.3725)

<h2>B = 3.63x10⁻⁸ T</h2><h2></h2>

Which means that the magnetic field is out of the page.

Hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
determine the loudness (in decibels) of the sound at a rock concert if the intensity of the sound is 1 x 10–1 w/m2. remember, th
EleoNora [17]

The loudness of the sound at the rock concert, where the intensity of the sound is1 x 10⁻¹ Wm⁻² is  110 dB.

Here we are dealing with loudness which is the perception of the Intensity of the sound.

The formula  to refer to in order  to  find the value of the loudness of a sound is ,

  db= 10log(I/I₀)

As we are provided with the current intensity which is  1 x 10⁻¹ Wm⁻². and the initial intensity which is  1 x 10⁻¹² Wm⁻².

So, by substituting the required values in the formula we get

db= 10 * log( 1 x 10⁻¹ /1 x 10⁻¹²)

 = 10 * 11 log(10)

 = 110

So, the result is 110 dB.

To know more about the intensity of sound refer to the link brainly.com/question/9323731?referrer=searchResults.

To know more about questions related to loudness refer to the link brainly.com/question/21094511?referrer=searchResults.

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
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