Yes thank u teehee
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The statement about pointwise convergence follows because C is a complete metric space. If fn → f uniformly on S, then |fn(z) − fm(z)| ≤ |fn(z) − f(z)| + |f(z) − fm(z)|, hence {fn} is uniformly Cauchy. Conversely, if {fn} is uniformly Cauchy, it is pointwise Cauchy and therefore converges pointwise to a limit function f. If |fn(z)−fm(z)| ≤ ε for all n,m ≥ N and all z ∈ S, let m → ∞ to show that |fn(z)−f(z)|≤εforn≥N andallz∈S. Thusfn →f uniformlyonS.
2. This is immediate from (2.2.7).
3. We have f′(x) = (2/x3)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, and f′(0) = limh→0(1/h)e−1/h2 = 0. Since f(n)(x) is of the form pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, where pn is a polynomial, an induction argument shows that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n. If g is analytic on D(0,r) and g = f on (−r,r), then by (2.2.16), g(z) =
Answer:
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
The question requires as well the attached image, so please see that below.
Coulomb's Law.
The electrical force can be understood by remembering Coulomb's Law, that describes the electrostatic force between two charged particles. If the particles have charges
and
, are separated by a distance r and are at rest relative to each other, then its electrostatic force magnitude on particle 1 due particle 2 is given by:

Thus if we decrease the distance by half we have

So we get

Replacing we get

We can then multiply both numerator and denominator by 4 to get

So we have

Thus if we decrease the distance by half we get four times the force.
Then we can replace the second condition

So we get

which give us

Thus doubling one of the charges doubles the force.
So the answer is A.