According to Charles law, we know, at constant pressure, volume is directly proportional to temperature.
So, <span>V/T = constant
</span>
V₁/t₁ = V₂/t₂
V₁t₂ = V₂t₁
Here, we have: V₁ = 9 mL
V₂ = ?
T₂ = 50+272 = 323 K
T₁ = 19+273 = 292 K
Substitute their values into the expression:
9 × 323 = V₂ × 292
V₂ = 2907 / 292
V₂ = 9.95
After rounding-off to unit place value, it would be equal to 10 mL
So, In short Option C would be your correct answer.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Because the mechanical advantage of the machine is affected by friction and weight but velocity ratio is not. So, mechanical advantage is less than velocity rate. Thus, the machine's efficiency is less than 100% and can't be a perfect machine
Answer:
The correct answer is A. Vibration.
Explanation:
Mechanical waves is formed by the oscillation of matter and therefore transfer energy from one medium to the other. Unlike electromagnetic waves, mechanical waves need some medium to propagate. It requires an initial energy input and thus carries this energy when it propagates. There are three types of mechanical waves namely transverse waves, longitudinal waves and surface waves. Examples of such waves are sound waves, water waves and seismic waves.
Consider that the bar magnet has a magnetic field that is acting around it, which will imply that there is a change in the magnetic flux through the loop whenever it moves towards the conducting loop. This could be described as an induction of the electromotive Force in the circuit from Faraday's law.
In turn by Lenz's law, said electromotive force opposes the change in the magnetic flux of the circuit. Therefore, there is a force that opposes the movement of the bar magnet through the conductor loop. Therefore, the bar magnet does not suffer free fall motion.
The bar magnet does not move as a freely falling object.
Answer:
6.57 m/s
Explanation:
First use Hook's Law to determine the F the compressed spring acts on the mass. Hook's Law F=kx; F=force, k=stiffnes of spring (or spring constant), x=displacement
F=kx; F=180(.3) = 54 N
Next from Newton's second law find the acceleration of the mass.
Newton's .2nd law F=ma; a=F/m ; a=54/.75 = 72m/s²
Now use the kinematic equation for velocity (or speed)
v₂²= v₀² + 2a(x₂-x₀); v₂=final velocity; v₀=initial velocity; a=acceleration; x₂=final displacement; x₀=initial displacment.
v₀=0, since the mass is at rest before we release it
a=72 m/s² (from above)
x₀=0 as the start position already compressed
x₂=0.3m (this puts the spring back to it's natural length)
v₂²= 0 + 2(72)(0.3) = 43.2 m²/s²
v₂=
= 6.57 m/s
