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Svet_ta [14]
4 years ago
13

If a machine uses LESS effort to overcome a given resistance force (if Fe is less than FR), it has an actual mechanical advantag

e of
Your answer:
0
Exactly 1
Less than 1
Greater than 1
Engineering
1 answer:
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

  greater than 1

Explanation:

The mechanical advantage is the ratio Fr/Fe. So if Fr > Fe, the mechanical advantage is greater than 1.

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