There are a variety of waves from light waves to mechanical waves. Waves can exhibit different effects like the Doppler Effect.
All light waves behave in a similar manner. They either get transmitted, reflected, absorbed, refracted, polarized, diffracted, or scattered based off of the composition of the object and the wavelength of the light.
According to Wikipedia, “One important property of mechanical waves is that their amplitudes are measured in an unusual way, displacement divided by (reduced) wavelength. When this gets comparable to unity, significant nonlinear effects such as harmonic generation may occur, and, if large enough, may result in chaotic effects.” Mechanical waves are chaotic and its “amplitudes” are measured unusually.
Diffraction is when light bends around objects and spread after passing out through small openings. “Diffraction occurs with all waves, including sound waves, water waves, and electromagnetic waves such as light that the eye can see.”-Wikipedia. Here is the formula to Diffraction: <em>d </em>sin <em>θ </em>= <em>nλ</em>
Doppler effect can occur for any type of wave like sound or water waves. An example of this is when we hear a police car with its sirens on, coming towards us. The closer you are to the police car, the higher the wavelength, but the farther away you are, the lower the wavelength.
<em />
Answer:
18.63 N
Explanation:
Assuming that the sum of torques are equal
Στ = Iα
First wheel
Στ = 5 * 0.51 = 3 * (0.51)² * α
On making α subject of formula, we have
α = 2.55 / 0.7803
α = 3.27
If we make the α of each one equal to each other so that
5 / (3 * 0.51) = F2 / (3 * 1.9)
solve for F2 by making F2 the subject of the formula, we have
F2 = (3 * 1.9 * 5) / (3 * 0.51)
F2 = 28.5 / 1.53
F2 = 18.63 N
Therefore, the force F2 has to 18.63 N in order to impart the same angular acceleration to each wheel.
Answer:
0 N
Explanation:
Applying,
F = qvBsin∅................. Equation 1
Where F = Force on the charge, q = charge, v = Velocity, B = magnetic charge, ∅ = angle between the velocity and the magnetic field.
From the question,
Given: q = 4.88×10⁻⁶ C, v = 265 m/s, B = 0.0579 T, ∅ = 0°
Substitute these values into equation 1
F = ( 4.88×10⁻⁶)(265)(0.0579)(sin0)
Since sin0° = 0,
Therefore,
F = 0 N
Answer:
The initial velocity of the ball is <u>39.2 m/s in the upward direction.</u>
Explanation:
Given:
Upward direction is positive. So, downward direction is negative.
Tota time the ball remains in air (t) = 8.0 s
Net displacement of the ball (S) = Final position - Initial position = 0 m
Acceleration of the ball is due to gravity. So, 
(Acting down)
Now, let the initial velocity be 'u' m/s.
From Newton's equation of motion, we have:
Plug in the given values and solve for 'u'. This gives,
Therefore, the initial velocity of the ball is 39.2 m/s in the upward direction.
Answer:
E_{k2}=2660 [J] kinetic energy.
Explanation:
The energy in the initial state i.e. when the rollercoaster is at the top is equal to the energy in the final state i.e. when it is at the bottom of the hill.
These states can be represented by means of the second equation.
![E_{k1}+E_{p1}=E_{k2}\\160 + 2500 = E_{k2}\\E_{k2}=2660 [J]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E_%7Bk1%7D%2BE_%7Bp1%7D%3DE_%7Bk2%7D%5C%5C160%20%2B%202500%20%3D%20E_%7Bk2%7D%5C%5CE_%7Bk2%7D%3D2660%20%5BJ%5D)
Since the rollercoaster is located in the bottom of the hill where the potential energy level is zero, therefore there is only kinetic energy in the second state.
