All categories

3 years ago

If you were able to jog one mile in 10 minutes, how would you progressively increase your

Physics

1 answer:

elena55 [62]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

1. (F) Increasing the frequency variable reduces the time required.

2. (I) Intensity variable can be related the the energy expended.

3.(T) Time variable would affect the speed.

Explanation:

1. (F) increasing the frequency variable implies that the distance would be covered in lesser time. As a wave of 250Hz cover more distance than that of 200Hz.

2. (I) Intensity variable. An increase in this variable implies that more energy is expended.

3.(T) Time variable can either give the required out come or not. As increasing the time would mean that the speed has reduced, while decreasing the time means the distance would be covered quickly. If the required speed is 20m/s, then increasing it to 30m/s imples that lesser time would be recorded. If the reverse is the case, then more time would be recorded. time = distance/speed

You might be interested in

While on vacation, a student picks up surface rocks from around the world to add to her rock collection. The composition of her

kykrilka [37]

I want to say that they will be primarily flat but I honestly don't know

7 0

3 years ago

A proton traveling at 17.6° with respect to the direction of a magnetic field of strength 3.28 mT experiences a magnetic force o

umka2103 [35]

Answer:

a) The proton's speed is 5.75x10⁵ m/s.

b) The kinetic energy of the proton is 1723 eV.

Explanation:

a) The proton's speed can be calculated with the Lorentz force equation:

$F = qv \times B = qvBsin(\theta)$ (1)

Where:

F: is the force = 9.14x10⁻¹⁷ N

q: is the charge of the particle (proton) = 1.602x10⁻¹⁹ C

v: is the proton's speed =?

B: is the magnetic field = 3.28 mT

θ: is the angle between the proton's speed and the magnetic field = 17.6°

By solving equation (1) for v we have:

$v = \frac{F}{qBsin(\theta)} = \frac{9.14 \cdot 10^{-17} N}{1.602\cdot 10^{-19} C*3.28 \cdot 10^{-3} T*sin(17.6)} = 5.75 \cdot 10^{5} m/s$

Hence, the proton's speed is 5.75x10⁵ m/s.

b) Its kinetic energy (K) is given by:

$K = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Where:

m: is the mass of the proton = 1.67x10⁻²⁷ kg

$K = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2} = \frac{1}{2}1.67 \cdot 10^{-27} kg*(5.75 \cdot 10^{5} m/s)^{2} = 2.76 \cdot 10^{-16} J*\frac{1 eV}{1.602 \cdot 10^{-19} J} = 1723 eV$

Therefore, the kinetic energy of the proton is 1723 eV.

I hope it helps you!

3 0

3 years ago

A civil engineer must design a wheelchair-accessible ramp next to a set of steps leading up to a building. The height from the g

Westkost [7]

Answer:

A) B = 24 ft

B) H = 24.08 ft

C) M.A = 12.04

D) P = 13.7 lb

Explanation:

Minimum allowable length of base of ramp can be found as follows:

Slope = H/B

where,

Slope = 1/12

H = Height of Ramp = 2 ft

B = Length of Base of Ramp = ?

Therefore,

1/12 = 2 ft/B

B = 2 ft * 12

B = 24 ft

The length of the slope of ramp can be found by using pythagora's theorem:

L = √H² + B²

where,

H = Perpendicular = height = 2 ft

B = Base = Length of Base of Ramp = 24 ft

L = Hypotenuse = Length of Slope of Ramp = ?

Therefore,

H = √[(2 ft)² + (24 ft)²]

H = 24.08 ft

The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is given by the following formula:

M.A = L/H

M.A = 24.08 ft/2 ft

M.A = 12.04

Another general formula for Mechanical Advantage is:

M.A = W/P

where,

W = Ideal Load = 165 lb

P = Ideal Effort Force = ?

Therefore,

12.04 = 165 lb/P

P = 165 lb/12.04

P = 13.7 lb

7 0

3 years ago

When turning a magnet very quickly would be BEST used to create A) radiation. B) light waves. C) an electric current. D) a conve

Gre4nikov [31]

the correct choice is

C) an electric current.

as a magnet is turned quickly relative to a coil, the magnetic flux linked with coil varies due to variation of angle of direction of magnetic field with normal to the plane of coil. the coil resist this change of magnetic flux in it by inducing emf in it so as to nullify the variation in magnetic flux. Due to this induced emf , electric current flows through the coil.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

When a force is acting at axis of rotation,why torque is zero?

Vikki [24]

Explanation:

see, torque=force × perpendicular distance

...that perpendicular distance is between axis of rotation and the point where force acts... so in above's case perpendicular distance is zero... so the torque is zero!

4 0

3 years ago