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KatRina [158]
3 years ago
10

How can you be both at rest and also moving at 100,000 km/h at the same time

Physics
1 answer:
4vir4ik [10]3 years ago
7 0

You could be lying completley still on your bed, and all though it seems you are at rest, you are moving along with the earth around the sun and hence are motion. This is why 'being at rest' is more of a relative term. Hope this helps!

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Which is the result of using a machine?
Eddi Din [679]
Correct Answers is A.

The machines gives us some mechanical advantage. This means the mechanical average makes the work output greater than the work input
Simple most example is a lever. The force applied is smaller and the output work is larger as compared to input.

Option B cannot be true, as there must be a force to get some work done.
Option C and D are inverse of what a machine is designed for. A small force can be exerted through a large distance to have a large force exerted through a small distance. Common Example of this principle is a screw opener. 
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Measure the amount of space an object takes up is what
kondaur [170]

That's what scientists and other technical people call the object's "<em>volume</em>".

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a bucket of water of mass 20kg is pulled at a constant velocity up to a platform 40 meters above the ground. this takes 10 minut
erma4kov [3.2K]
<span>Taking into account the information above, we know the average mass of the bucket of water may be m=20-5/2=17.5kg. As the bucket of water is pulled at a "constant velocity" the work required to raise the bucket to the platform transformed into the potential energy of the bucket of water. That is why it should be W=mgh=17.5*9.8*40=6860J</span>
5 0
3 years ago
What is the force of gravity acting on a 1-kg m mass? (g = 9.8 m/s ^ 2)
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer: Use this F=Ma.

Explanation: So your answer will be

F=1 Kg+9.8 ms-2

So the answer will be

F=9.8N

How'd I do this?

I just used Newton's second law of motion.

I'll also put the derivation just in case.

Applied force α (Not its alpha, proportionality symbol) change in momentum

Δp α p final- p initial

Δp α mv-mu (v=final velocity, u=initial velocity and p=v*m)

or then

F α m(v-u)/t

So, as we know v=final velocity & u= initial velocity and v-u/t =a.

So F α ma, we now remove the proportionality symbol so we'll add a proportionality constant to make the RHS & LHS equal.

So, F=<em>k</em>ma (where k is the proportionality constant)

<em>k</em> is 1 so you can ignore it.

So, our equation becomes F=ma

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE ANSWER THIS ASAP I WILL MARK YOU THE BRAINLIEST The actual subject is Science but they dont have that as a option in pick
fenix001 [56]
Correct me if I’m wrong but I think it’s A

Explanation:
Runner A has already reached about 50m in around 5s.
7 0
3 years ago
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