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kipiarov [429]
3 years ago
15

214Bi83 --> 214Po84 + eBismuth-214 undergoes first-order radioactive decay to polonium-214 by the release of a beta particle,

as represented by the nuclear equation above. Which of the following quantities plotted versus time will produce a straight line?(A) [Bi](B) [Po](C) ln[Bi](D) 1/[Bi]
Engineering
2 answers:
tiny-mole [99]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Option C. ln[Bi]

Explanation:

The nuclear equation of first-order radioactive decay of Bi to Po is:

²¹⁴Bi₈₃  →  ²¹⁴Po₈₄ + e⁻

The radioactive decay is expressed by the following equation:

N_{t} = N_{0}e^{-\lambda t}      (1)  

<em>where Nt: is the number of particles at time t, No: is the initial number of particles, and λ: is the decay constant.     </em>            

<u>To plot the variation of the quantities in function of time, we need to solve equation (1) for t: </u>

Ln(\frac{N_{t}}{N_{0}}) = -\lambda t      (2)

<u>Firts, we need to convert the number of particles of Bi (N) to concentrations, as follows:</u>

[Bi] = \frac {N particles}{N_{A} * V}                            (3)  

[Bi]_{0} = \frac {N_{0} particles}{N_{A} * V}               (4)  

<em>where </em>N_{A}<em>: si the Avogadro constant and V is the volume.</em>

Now, introducing equations (3) and (4) into (2), we have:

Ln (\frac {\frac {[Bi]*N_{A}}{V}}{\frac {[Bi]_{0}*N_{A}}{V}}) = -\lambda t  

Ln (\frac {[Bi]}{[Bi]_{0}}) = -\lambda t      (5)

Finally, from equation (5) we can get a plot of Bi versus time in where the curve is a straight line:

Ln ([Bi]) = -\lambda t + Ln([Bi]_{0})      

Therefore, the correct answer is option C. ln[Bi].

I hope it helps you!          

Zolol [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(C) ln [Bi]

Explanation:

Radioactive materials will usually decay based on their specific half lives. In radioactivity, the plot of the natural logarithm of the original radioactive material against time will give a straight-line curve. This is mostly used to estimate the decay constant that is equivalent to the negative of the slope. Thus, the answer is option C.

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7 0
3 years ago
10% A steel beam W18x76 spans 32 feet and is subjected to a Moment of 334 kips-ft. Find the load w on the beam. Determine the de
Lilit [14]

Answer:

w = 10.437 kips

deflection at 1/4 span  20.83\E ft

at mid span = 1.23\E ft

shear stress  7.3629 psi

Explanation:

area of cross section = 18*76

length of span = 32 ft

moment = 334 kips-ft

we know that

moment = load *eccentricity

334 = w * 32

w = 10.437 kips

deflection at 1/4 span

\delta = \frac{wa^2b^2}{3EI}

= \frac{10.4375*8^2 *24^2}{3E \frac{BD^3}{12}}

         =\frac{10.437 *8^2*24^2}{3E \frac{18*16^3}{12}}

         = 20.83\E ft

at mid span

\delta = \frac{wl^3}{48EI}

= \frac{10.43 *32^3}{48 *E*\frac{18*16^3}{12}}

\delta = 1.23\E ft

shear stress

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6 0
3 years ago
Water at 200C flows through a pipe of 10 mm diameter pipe at 1 m/s. Is the flow Turbulent ? a. Yes b. No
Degger [83]

Answer:

Yes, the flow is turbulent.

Explanation:

Reynolds number gives the nature of flow. If he Reynolds number is less than 2000 then the flow is laminar else turbulent.

Given:

Diameter of pipe is 10mm.

Velocity of the pipe is 1m/s.

Temperature of water is 200°C.

The kinematic viscosity at temperature 200°C is 1.557\times10^{-7}m2/s.

Calculation:

Step1

Expression for Reynolds number is given as follows:

Re=\frac{vd}{\nu}

Here, v is velocity, \nu is kinematic viscosity, d is diameter and Re is Reynolds number.

Substitute the values in the above equation as follows:

Re=\frac{vd}{\nu}

Re=\frac{1\times(10mm)(\frac{1m}{1000mm})}{1.557\times10^{-7}}

Re=64226.07579

Thus, the Reynolds number is 64226.07579. This is greater than 2000.

Hence, the given flow is turbulent flow.

5 0
3 years ago
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