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makvit [3.9K]
3 years ago
10

Why does gravitational energy increase away from earth

Physics
1 answer:
aliina [53]3 years ago
4 0
Because of the rule of mask.
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Number of complete 90.9 MHz radio waves over a 1.50 km distance
zimovet [89]
You could answer this right away IF you knew the length of each wave, right ?

Well,  Wavelength = (speed) / (frequency).

Speed = 3 x 10⁸ m/s  (the speed of light)
and
Frequency = 90.9 x 10⁶ Hertz.

So the length of each wave is  3 x 10⁸ / 90.9 x 10⁶  meters.

To answer the question, see how many pieces you have to cut
that 1.5 km into, in order for each piece to be 1 wavelength. 
It'll be

(1,500 meters) divided by (3 x 10⁸ meters/sec) / (90.9 x 10⁶ Hz)

To divide by a fraction, flip the fraction and then multiply:

(1500 meters) times (90.9 x 10⁶ Hz)/(3 x 10⁸ meters/sec)

=   454.5
5 0
3 years ago
What are the four forms of matter that waves can travel through?
podryga [215]

Answer:

<em><u>It can be a solid, liquid, gas</u></em><em><u>,</u></em><em><u>plasma</u></em><em><u>,</u></em><em><u>etc</u></em><em><u>. When waves travel through a medium, the particles of the medium are not carried along with </u></em><em><u>the</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>wave</u></em><em><u>.</u></em><em><u>For example, water waves have to travel in water. Sound waves need a solid, a liquid or a gas to travel in.</u></em>

8 0
3 years ago
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Audio frequency range of a human ear is 20Hz - 20000 Hz. Express the range in terms of time period ? Answer needed urgently. Pl.
Feliz [49]
Using the term c in this case is a little confusing. It is more generic to use a general velocity, v. That way, in this case, we know to use the speed of sound. 

wavelength*frequency=v 

wavelength_20Hz = (345 m/s)/(1/20s) 

<span>wavelength_20kHz = (345 m/s)/(1/20000s)


I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
</span>
5 0
3 years ago
As a dilligent physics student, you carry out physics experiments at every opportunity. At this opportunity, you carry a 1.39-m-
grin007 [14]

Answer:

The strength of magnetic field is 6.21 \times 10^{-5} T

Explanation:

Given:

Length of rod l = 1.39 m

Velocity v = 3.37 \frac{m}{s}

Induced emf = 0.291 \times 10^{-3} V

According to the faraday's law

Induced emf = Blv

We have to find strength of the magnetic field,

   B = \frac{0.291 \times 10^{-3} }{1.39 \times3.37}

   B = 6.21 \times 10^{-5} T

Therefore, the strength of magnetic field is 6.21 \times 10^{-5} T

7 0
3 years ago
In Niels Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons move (1 point)like balls rolling down a hill.
DochEvi [55]
I think the correct answer from the choices listed above is the second option. In Niels Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons move like planets orbiting the sun. His model of atom is seen as<span> very small, positively charged nucleus which contains proton and neutron surrounded by negatively charged electrons.</span><span> These electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleolus. </span>
4 0
3 years ago
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